1) Which muscle type is voluntary and striated? a) Smooth b) Cardiac c) Skeletal d) Visceral 2) Which muscle type has very limited ability to regenerate? a) Smooth b) Skeletal c) Cardiac d) All regenerate equally 3) What neurotransmitter is released at the neuromuscular junction? a) Dopamine b) Acetylcholine (ACh) c) Serotonin d) Norepinephrine 4) Acetylcholine binds to which receptors on the muscle fiber? a) Muscarinic b) Adrenergic c) Nicotinic d) GABA 5) Which ion triggers muscle contraction when released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum? a) Sodium b) Potassium c) Calcium d) Chloride 6) Where do somatic motor neuron fibers decussate before reaching lower motor neurons? a) Pons b) Medulla c) Cerebellum d) Spinal cord 7) A single brief stimulus that produces a latent period, contraction, and relaxation is called: a) Wave summation b) Treppe c) Single twitch d) Incomplete tetanus 8) What happens during treppe (staircase phenomenon)? a) Stimuli arrive before relaxation b) Calcium never returns to SR c) Each contraction gets slightly stronger after full relaxation d) No relaxation occurs between stimuli 9) Wave summation occurs when: a) A new stimulus arrives before the muscle fully relaxes b) Stimuli arrive after complete relaxation c) Calcium is fully removed each time d) Myosin cannot bind to actin 10) Incomplete tetanus is characterized by: a) No relaxation at all b) Smooth sustained contraction c) Partial relaxation between very frequent stimuli d) One single stimulus 11) Smooth tetanus occurs when: a) Stimuli arrive very slowly b) There is partial relaxation c) There is no relaxation between extremely frequent stimuli d) Calcium is fully reabsorbed between impulses 12) During contraction, calcium binds to: a) Tropomyosin b) Actin c) Troponin d) Myosin 13) What happens when calcium binds to troponin? a) Actin detaches from myosin b) Tropomyosin moves away from actin’s binding site c) ATP is released d) Myosin breaks down 14) Myosin cross-bridge attachment requires: a) ATP b) Glucose only c) Potassium d) Tropomyosin 15) The thin filaments sliding past thick filaments describes: a) Diffusion b) Wave summation c) Sliding filament mechanism d) Synaptic transmission 16) Which energy source is used first during muscle contraction? a) Aerobic metabolism b) Creatine phosphate c) Anaerobic glycolysis d) Protein catabolism 17) Which metabolic pathway produces ATP without oxygen but forms lactic acid? a) Aerobic metabolism b) Electron transport chain c) Anaerobic metabolism d) Krebs cycle only 18) During longer-duration activity, muscles rely on: a) Aerobic metabolism b) Only creatine phosphate c) Only anaerobic glycolysis d) Passive diffusion 19) What triggers the release of ACh from the motor neuron terminal? a) Calcium entering the axon terminal b) Potassium leaving the axon c) ATP breakdown d) Troponin activation 20) What structure releases calcium during muscle contraction? a) Nucleus b) T-tubule c) Sarcoplasmic reticulum d) Mitochondrion 21) What is the periosteum? a) Bone marrow b) Outer bone layer c) Joint cartilage d) Bone cavity 22) Which bone is a flat bone? a) Femur b) Sternum c) Tibia d) Patella 23) What is the function of ligaments? a) Connect muscle to bone b) Connect bone to bone c) Cover bone surface d) Produce blood cells 24) Where is the epiphysis located? a) Bone shaft b) Bone end c) Bone cavity d) Bone surface 25) What is a condyle? a) Flat surface b) Large projection c) Bone cavity d) Bone hole 26) Which bone is part of the axial skeleton? a) Femur b) Rib c) Humerus d) Tibia 27) What is the function of bone marrow? a) Store minerals b) Produce blood cells c) Protect organs d) Support muscles 28) Which bones form the wrist? a) Carpals b) Tarsals c) Metacarpals d) Phalanges 29) What is the diaphysis? a) Bone end b) Bone shaft c) Bone surface d) Bone cavity 30) Which bone is a sesamoid bone? a) Patella b) Scapula c) Clavicle d) Ulna 31) What is a foramen? a) Bone groove b) Bone opening c) Bone ridge d) Bone surface 32) Which bone is part of the appendicular skeleton? a) Skull b) Femur c) Vertebrae d) Rib 33) Which bones are cranial bones? a) Frontal and parietal b) Femur and tibia c) Radius and ulna d) Scapula and clavicle 34) What is the function of the epiphyseal plate? a) Bone growth b) Bone repair c) Bone protection d) Bone support 35) Which bone is an irregular bone? a) Vertebra b) Femur c) Tibia d) Radius 36) Which bone is a long bone? a) Femur b) Scapula c) Patella d) Carpal 37) What is a facet? a) Flat surface b) Bone hole c) Bone projection d) Bone cavity 38) Which bones form the ankle? a) Tarsals b) Carpals c) Metatarsals d) Phalanges 39) Which bone is part of the pelvic girdle? a) Ilium b) Femur c) Tibia d) Humerus 40) What is the function of the cranial bones? a) Protect brain b) Support limbs c) Store calcium d) Produce hormones 41) What is the primary function of alveoli? a) Gas exchange b) Blood filtration c) Nutrient absorption d) Hormone secretion 42) Which process describes movement of gases across alveolar walls? a) Diffusion b) Osmosis c) Active transport d) Filtration 43) What is the role of the DRG in respiration? a) Control rhythm b) Initiate inhalation c) Regulate heart rate d) Stimulate digestion 44) Which structure prevents food from entering the trachea? a) Epiglottis b) Larynx c) Pharynx d) Esophagus 45) What is the main muscle involved in breathing? a) Diaphragm b) Biceps c) Triceps d) Quadriceps 46) Which gas is primarily expelled during exhalation? a) Carbon dioxide b) Oxygen c) Nitrogen d) Helium 47) What is the function of mechanoreceptors in the lungs? a) Detect stretch b) Sense temperature c) Monitor pH d) Regulate blood flow 48) Where does gas exchange occur in the lungs? a) Alveoli b) Bronchi c) Trachea d) Larynx 49) Which part of the brain controls involuntary breathing? a) Medulla b) Cerebrum c) Cerebellum d) Thalamus 50) What is the primary component of the respiratory membrane? a) Alveolar epithelium b) Cartilage c) Smooth muscle d) Connective tissue 51) Mechanoreceptors in muscles and joints help: a) Slow breathing b) Adjust breathing c) Decrease lung volume d) Trigger coughing 52) The DRG sends signals to: a) Brainstem only b) Diaphragm and intercostals c) Alveoli d) Nasal cavity 53) Gas exchange occurs in the: a) Trachea b) Bronchi c) Alveoli d) Pleural cavity 54) Oxygen and carbon dioxide move by: a) Active transport b) Osmosis c) Simple diffusion d) Filtration 55) Oxygen diffuses: a) From blood to alveoli b) From alveoli to blood c) From pleura to trachea d) Into bronchial cartilage 56) Carbon dioxide diffuses: a) From alveoli to blood b) From blood to alveoli c) From cartilage to muscle d) From diaphragm to ribs 57) Structure preventing lung over-expansion: a) DRG b) Peripheral chemoreceptors c) Lung stretch receptors d) Mechanoreceptors 58) What controls breathing rhythm? a) Cerebral cortex b) Dorsal respiratory group c) Spinal cord d) Vagus nerve 59) Main function of the respiratory system: a) Produce hormones b) Oxygen delivery and CO₂ removal c) Regulate blood calcium d) Produce digestive enzymes 60) What increases lung volume during inhalation? a) Diaphragm relaxation b) External intercostal contraction c) Decreased thoracic cavity size d) Lung deflation 61) Simple diffusion involves movement of molecules: a) From low to high b) From high to low c) Using ATP d) Only through channels 62) Simple diffusion requires: a) ATP b) Enzymes c) No ATP d) Motor neurons 63) Which cranial nerve controls most extraocular muscles? a) CN II b) CN III (Oculomotor) c) CN V d) CN VII 64) Cranial nerve IV (Trochlear) innervates the: a) Superior oblique muscle b) Lateral rectus muscle c) Medial rectus muscle d) Inferior oblique muscle 65) Cranial nerve VI (Abducens) controls which muscle? a) Superior oblique b) Lateral rectus c) Inferior rectus d) Levator palpebrae 66) Cranial nerve VII (Facial) is responsible for all EXCEPT: a) Facial expression b) Taste from anterior tongue c) Salivation and lacrimation d) Eye movement 67) The sympathetic nervous system originates from: a) Brainstem only b) Cranial nerves III, VII, IX, X c) T1–L2 spinal cord levels d) S2–S4 spinal cord levels 68) The thoracolumbar division refers to which system? a) Parasympathetic b) Somatic c) Sympathetic d) Enteric 69) The sympathetic nervous system is known for: a) Rest and digest b) Fight or flight c) Sleep and dreaming d) Hormone secretion 70) Which of the following is a sympathetic effect? a) Decreased heart rate b) Bronchoconstriction c) Pupil constriction d) Increased heart rate and force 71) Increased heart rate and contractility are mainly due to: a) α₁ stimulation b) β₁-adrenergic stimulation c) Dopamine release d) Muscarinic receptor activation 72) The parasympathetic nervous system has a craniosacral origin, which includes cranial nerves: a) I, II, IV, V b) III, VII, IX, X c) V, VI, VIII, XII d) II, III, VIII, XI 73) The sacral portion of the parasympathetic system arises from: a) S1–S2 b) S2–S4 c) L1–L3 d) T1–T4 74) The parasympathetic system is known for: a) Fight or flight b) Rest and digest c) Vasoconstriction d) Increased blood pressure 75) Parasympathetic activity increases: a) Heart rate b) Pupil dilation c) Salivation d) Bronchodilation 76) Which cranial nerve slows the heart rate? a) CN III b) CN VII c) CN IX d) CN X (Vagus) 77) Which function is regulated by the autonomic nervous system? a) Skeletal muscle contraction b) Breathing rhythm c) Involuntary body functions d) Thought processing 78) Movement of substances across membranes by diffusion helps the nervous system by: a) Releasing neurotransmitters b) Allowing communication and regulation c) Destroying pathogens d) Increasing bone growth 79) Cranial nerves III, IV, and VI together control: a) Hearing b) Eye movement c) Smell d) Swallowing 80) Homeostasis between sympathetic and parasympathetic systems is achieved by: a) Only conscious control b) Adjusting organ function based on needs c) Skeletal muscle contraction d) Increasing bone marrow production 81) Which hormone regulates blood sugar? a) Insulin b) Cortisol c) PTH d) Aldosterone 82) What does glucagon do? a) Lowers blood sugar b) Raises blood sugar c) Increases calcium d) Decreases calcium 83) Which gland produces adrenaline? a) Thyroid b) Adrenal c) Pituitary d) Pancreas 84) What is the role of aldosterone? a) Regulate sodium b) Control glucose c) Increase calcium d) Produce insulin 85) Which hormone is a stress hormone? a) Cortisol b) Insulin c) Glucagon d) PTH 86) Where is the thyroid gland located? a) Neck b) Abdomen c) Brain d) Chest 87) What does TSH stimulate? a) Thyroid gland b) Adrenal gland c) Pancreas d) Liver 88) Which hormone lowers blood calcium? a) Calcitonin b) PTH c) Insulin d) Glucagon 89) What is the function of melatonin? a) Regulate sleep b) Control appetite c) Increase energy d) Reduce stress 90) Which hormone is secreted by the pancreas? a) Insulin b) Adrenaline c) Thyroxine d) Cortisol 91) The effect of EPO on red bone marrow is to: a) Increase RBC production b) Decrease RBC production c) Lower blood calcium d) Lower blood glucose 92) Increasing RBCs results in: a) Lower oxygen capacity b) Higher oxygen capacity c) Lower blood pressure d) Increased temperature 93) Increasing RBC number is an example of a _______ feedback loop. a) Positive b) Neutral c) Negative d) Inhibitory 94) The purpose of the negative feedback loop in oxygen regulation is to: a) Raise blood sugar b) Restore oxygen levels c) Stimulate digestion d) Increase bone calcium 95) Which of the following is not an action of PTH? a) Increased bone resorption b) Increased calcium reabsorption c) Activation of vitamin D d) Decreased calcium absorption 96) When blood calcium levels normalize, PTH secretion: a) Increases b) Stops or decreases c) Remains constant d) Switches to calcitonin 97) Which organ produces erythropoietin? a) Heart b) Kidneys c) Spleen d) Pituitary gland 98) What triggers the kidney to release EPO? a) High blood oxygen b) Low blood oxygen c) High calcium d) Low glucose 99) The cells produced in response to EPO primarily improve: a) Immune function b) Digestion c) Oxygen transport d) Hormone release 100) As homeostasis is restored, the negative feedback loop: a) Shuts down or slows b) Intensifies c) Reverses to positive d) Changes PTH into EPO

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