1) What is virtualization? a) technology that lets you create IT services using resources that are traditionally bound to hardware. b) reproduction of the function or action of a different computer, software system, etc c) delivering applications remotely over the internet instead of locally on machines d) a data storage process in which data is written simultaneously to two disks, to protect against the possible failure of one of them 2) What is a hypervisor? a) software that supports a computer's basic functions, such as scheduling tasks, executing applications, and controlling peripherals. b) software that separates the physical resources from the virtual environments c) a program or piece of software designed and written to fulfill a particular purpose of the user. d) a hardware component, typically a circuit board or chip, which is installed on a computer so it can connect to a network. 3) What are two types of hypervisors? a) server core and datacenter b) ESXi and Oracle c) bare metal and hosted d) Full and Partial 4) What is a “type 1” hypervisor? a) hosted; runs as a software layer on an operating system, like other computer programs. b) bare metal; runs as a software layer on an operating system, like other computer programs. c) hosted; acts like a lightweight operating system and runs directly on the host’s hardware d) bare metal; acts like a lightweight operating system and runs directly on the host’s hardware 5) What is a “type 2” hypervisor? a) hosted; runs as a software layer on an operating system, like other computer programs b) bare metal; acts like a lightweight operating system and runs directly on the host’s hardware c) hosted; acts like a lightweight operating system and runs directly on the host’s hardware d) bare metal; runs as a software layer on an operating system, like other computer programs. 6) What are five types of Virtualization? a) Desktop, Server, Application, Network, Platform b) Desktop, Server, Application, Network, Storage c) Desktop, Server, Appliance, Network, Storage d) Desktop, Service, Application, Network, Resource 7) What is Desktop Virtualization? a) apps that run without any dependencies through another operating system or browser. b) the abstraction of network resources that were traditionally delivered in hardware to software. c) a method of simulating a user workstation so it can be accessed from a remotely connected device. d) the pooling of physical storage from multiple storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device -- or pool of available storage capacity -- that is managed from a central console. 8) What is Server Virtualization? a) a method of simulating a user workstation so it can be accessed from a remotely connected device. b) the pooling of physical storage from multiple storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device -- or pool of available storage capacity -- that is managed from a central console. c) the abstraction of network resources that were traditionally delivered in hardware to software. d) the process is where the server resources are hidden from server users. This includes information like the number of servers, the identity of the users, processors and operating systems that are working on a single server. 9) What is Application Virtualization? a) apps that run without any dependencies through another operating system or browser. b) abstraction of network resources that were traditionally delivered in hardware to software. c) a method of simulating a user workstation so it can be accessed from a remotely connected device. d) the pooling of physical storage from multiple storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device -- or pool of available storage capacity -- that is managed from a central console. 10) What is Storage virtualization? a) a method of simulating a user workstation so it can be accessed from a remotely connected device. b) the abstraction of network resources that were traditionally delivered in hardware to software. c) the pooling of physical storage from multiple storage devices into what appears to be a single storage device -- or pool of available storage capacity -- that is managed from a central console. d) the process is where the server resources are hidden from server users. This includes information like the number of servers, the identity of the users, processors and operating systems that are working on a single server. 11) What are the four types of Storage Virtualization? a) Block, Drive, Tape, File b) Block, Disk, Tape, Folder c) Block, Drive, Tape, Folder d) Block, Disk, Tape, File 12) How does the Marine Corps use virtualization? a) VDI, Server, Storage, Application, Networking b) Desktop, Server, Networking c) VDI, Storage, Application Networking d) Desktop, Storage, Server 13) What is file-based storage virtualization? a) storage resources typically accessed via a Fibre Channel (FC) or Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) storage area network (SAN). b) storage virtualization that is applied to network-attached storage (NAS) systems. c) Abstract disks into chunks in storage pools that are used to create LUNs. d) Virtualizes LUNs presented to applications 14) What is block-based storage virtualization? a) storage virtualization that is applied to network-attached storage (NAS) systems. b) Abstract disks into chunks in storage pools that are used to create LUNs c) storage resources typically accessed via a Fibre Channel (FC) or Internet Small Computer System Interface (iSCSI) storage area network (SAN) d) Virtualizes NAS and file servers into a single namespace 15) In regards to storage virtualization, what is block virtualization? a) Virtualizes NAS and file servers into a single namespace. b) Abstract disks into chunks in storage pools that are used to create LUNs. c) Creates a virtual tape on a disk storage system. d) Virtualizes LUNs presented to applications. 16) In regards to storage virtualization, what is disk virtualization? a) Abstract disks into chunks in storage pools that are used to create LUNs. b) Virtualizes LUNs presented to applications c) Virtualizes NAS and file servers into a single namespace. d) Creates a virtual tape on a disk storage system 17) In regards to storage virtualization, what is tape virtualization? a) Abstract disks into chunks in storage pools that are used to create LUNs. b) Creates a virtual tape on a disk storage system. c) Virtualizes LUNs presented to applications d) Virtualizes NAS and file servers into a single namespace 18) In regards to storage virtualization, what is file virtualization? a) Creates a virtual tape on a disk storage system b) Abstract disks into chunks in storage pools that are used to create LUNs c) Virtualizes NAS and file servers into a single namespace d) Virtualizes LUNs presented to applications. 19) What does block-based virtualization enable? a) simplifies background file migration and improves performance b) permits the full utilization of modern tape technology's underlying storage capacity and decreases the virtual volume access time of data storage and retrieval. c) installs agents on individual servers to direct their storage I/O to the virtualization appliance. d) enables the virtualization management software to collect the capacity of the available blocks of storage space across all virtualized arrays and pool them into a shared resource to be assigned to any number of VMs, bare-metal servers or containers. 20) What is the purpose of Continuation of Operations (COOP)? a) it identifies how critical operations will continue under a broad range of circumstances. b) it secures forward operational level military positions that are used to support strategic goals and tactical objectives. c) it conveys that all communication from a location has been stopped due to an incident. d) it identifies vital information security processes that administrators use to protect systems and information. 21) What are the four phases of COOP? a) Readiness and Preparedness, Activation and Relocation, Continuity Operations, and Reconstruction b) Readiness and Preparedness, Activation and Relocation, Continuity Operations, and Reconstitution c) Observe, Orient, Decide, Act d) Planning, Activation and Relocation, Continuity Operations, and Reconstruction 22) Everything done to Prevent, Mitigate, Respond and Recover from a hazard is what phase of COOP? a) Activation and Relocation b) Continuity Operations c) Readiness and Preparedness d) Reconstitution 23) The activation of various cold, hot or warm sites based on the guidance from leadership is what phase of COOP? a) Continuity Operations b) Reconstitution c) Readiness and Preparedness d) Activation and Relocation 24) The actual use of the resources that are activated is in what phase of COOP? a) Continuity Operations b) Reconstitution c) Readiness and Preparedness d) Activation and Relocation 25) Rebuilding of infrastructure to meet and exceed the needs of the previous iteration is what phase of COOP? a) Readiness and Preparedness b) Reconstitution c) Activation and Relocation d) Continuity Operations 26) _______ is a single pane of glass across multiple vCenter Servers in the same vSphere Single-Sign-On (SSO) domain that allows virtual infrastructure engineers to easily manage different virtual environments a) Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) b) VMware High Availability (HA) c) Enhanced Linked Mode (ELM) d) Virtual Distributed Switch (VDS) 27) ________ spreads the virtual machine workloads across vSphere hosts inside a cluster and monitors available resources for you. a) VMware High Availability (HA) b) Virtual Distributed Switch (VDS) c) Enhanced Linked Mode (ELM) d) Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS) 28) _______ is an aggregate of local or direct-attached data storage devices, to create a single storage pool shared across all hosts in a vSAN cluster. a) virtual Storage Area Network (vSAN) b) VMware High Availability (HA) c) vSphere Fault Tolerance d) Distributed Resource Scheduler 29) ________ is a single virtual switch to connect multiple hosts in a cluster or multiple clusters for centralized management of network configurations in a vSphere environment. a) standard virtual switch b) Virtual Distributed Switch (VDS) c) layer 3 switch d) a switch you were asked to find in the backyard 30) What is a benefits of Enhanced Linked Mode? a) A simplified backup and restore process without a separate backup appliance b) Offers pretty simplified domain architecture while managing multiple sites even without external PSC c) It moves workloads around the cluster without administrator intervention if there is a chance to better balance workloads running inside the cluster d) Simplified HA process without using a load balancer while managing up to 15 vCenter Server Appliances in Embedded Linked Mode 31) _________ ensures that sufficient resources are available in the resource pool at all times to be able to restart virtual machines on different physical servers in the event of server failure. a) vSphere Fault Tolerance b) Distributed Resource Scheduler c) VMware High Availability (HA) d) Enhanced Link Mode 32) ________ provides continuous availability for such a virtual machine by creating and maintaining another VM that is identical and continuously available to replace it in the event of a failover situation. a) Distributed Resource Scheduler b) Enhanced Link Mode c) VMware High Availability (HA) d) vSphere Fault Tolerance 33) What are the levels of Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)? a) Safe, Semi-auto, Burst, Full-Auto b) Manual, Semi Automated, Fully Automated, Disabled c) Manual, Automatic, Disabled d) Manual, Partially Automated, Fully Automated, Disabled 34) _______ is a level of Distributed Resource Scheduler that make recommendations to an administrator, but no automated actions will be taken. a) Manual b) Partially Automated c) Fully Automated d) Disabled 35) _________ is a level of Distributed Resource Scheduler that will automatically place new virtual machines on existing hosts based on performance and resource criteria, then proceeds to operate the same way as Manual DRS. a) Fully Automated b) Partially Automated c) Disabled d) Manual 36) __________ is a level of Distributed Resource Scheduler that will provide initial placement service and it will also move workloads around the cluster without administrator intervention if there is a chance to better balance workloads running inside the cluster. a) Disabled b) Manual c) Fully Automated d) Partially Automated 37) What is a VM-Host Affinity Rules? a) affinity or anti-affinity between individual virtual machines. b) it defines the traffic allowed to the server on which ports and from which sources. c) a mapping between an object type, life cycle state, a participant, and their associated permissions. d) affinity or anti-affinity between a group of virtual machines and a group of hosts. 38) What is VM-VM Affinity Rules? a) affinity or anti-affinity between individual virtual machines. b) it defines the traffic allowed to the server on which ports and from which sources. c) a mapping between an object type, life cycle state, a participant, and their associated d) affinity or anti-affinity between a group of virtual machines and a group of hosts. 39) The separation and compartmentalizing of all resources in a cluster is an example of what VMware concept. a) High Availability b) Resource Pool c) Enhanced Link Mode d) iSCSI 40) The complete amount of virtual disk storage capacity is pre-allocated on the physical storage when the virtual disk is created is an example of what type of storage allocation? a) Thin provisioning b) Raid 5 c) Thick provisioning d) Raid 1 41) The virtual disk consumes only the space that it needs initially, and grows with time according to demand. This is an example of what type of storage allocation? a) Thick provisioning b) Raid 5 c) Raid 1 d) Thin provisioning 42) A disk that takes all of its space at the time of its creation, but this space may contain some old data on the physical media is an example of what type of Thick provisioned disk? a) Lazy Zeroed b) Eager Zeroed 43) A disk that gets all of the required space still at the time of its creation, and the space is wiped clean of any previous data on the physical media is an example of what type of Thick provisioned disk? a) Lazy Zeroed b) Eager Zeroed 44) What RAID is also known as a stripe set or striped volume, splits ("stripes") data evenly across two or more disks, without parity information, redundancy, or fault tolerance? a) RAID 1 b) RAID 2 c) RAID 0 d) RAID 1+0 45) What RAID consists of an exact copy (or mirror) of a set of data on two or more disks? a) RAID 0 b) RAID 2 c) RAID 1+0 d) RAID 1 46) What RAID stripes data at the bit (rather than block) level, and uses a Hamming code for error correction? a) RAID 2 b) RAID 0 c) RAID 1 d) RAID 1+0 47) What RAID consists of byte-level striping with a dedicated parity disk? a) RAID 4 b) RAID 3 c) RAID 5 d) RAID 6 48) What RAID consists of block-level striping with a dedicated parity disk? a) RAID 3 b) RAID 5 c) RAID 4 d) RAID 6 49) What RAID consists of block-level striping with distributed parity and requires that all drives but one be present to operate? a) RAID 3 b) RAID 4 c) RAID 6 d) RAID 5 50) What RAID extends RAID 5 by adding another parity block; thus, it uses block-level striping with two parity blocks distributed across all member disks? a) RAID 6 b) RAID 3 c) RAID 4 d) RAID 5 51) What RAID is a preferable RAID level for I/O-intensive applications such as database, email, and web servers, as well as for any other use requiring high disk performance? a) RAID 0 b) RAID 1+0 c) RAID 1 d) RAID 2 52) What are some consideration when making a vSAN Cluster? a) All devices (firmware, storage, and otherwise) need to be listed in the VMware Compatibility Guide as compatible for use with VMware vSAN b) A standard vSAN cluster needs to have at least 3 hosts that are participating in vSAN and contributing storage capacity c) All host must be the same make and model to be added to the vSAN cluster. d) A host cannot participate in another cluster and a vSAN cluster at the same time 53) What are disadvantages using hosts with different configurations in a vSAN cluster? a) Reduced predictability of storage performance because vSAN does not store the same number of components on each host. b) Different maintenance procedures. c) Reduced performance on hosts in the cluster that have smaller or different types of cache devices. d) All disk within the cluster will read like the smallest disk that is being used creating reduced storage space and unavailable/wasted resources. 54) ________ is abstracting network resources that were traditionally delivered in hardware to software? a) Network Virtualization b) Storage Virtualization c) Server Virtualization d) Application Virtualization 55) True or False. With Network Virtualization you can combine multiple physical networks to one virtual, software-based network, or it can divide one physical network into separate, independent virtual networks. a) True b) False 56) What is a standard vSwitch? a) a single virtual switch to connect multiple hosts in a cluster or multiple clusters for centralized management of network configurations in a vSphere environment. b) a software program – a logical switching fabric that emulates a switch as a layer-2 network device. c) a type of network switch or device that works on the data link layer and utilizes MAC Address to determine the path through where the frames are to be forwarded d) a switch that combines the functionality of a switch and a router 57) True or False. A standard vSwitch learns the MAC addresses of transit traffic from the external network. a) True b) False 58) True or False. A standard vSwitch does not participate in Spanning Tree protocols. a) True b) False 59) True or False. A standard vSwitch can create a network loop for redundant network connection. a) True b) False 60) Each VMware vCenter Server instance can support up to how many VDSs? a) 64 b) 256 c) 128 d) 500 61) A VDS can manage up to how many hosts? a) 1000 b) 1500 c) 2000 d) 500 62) On a VDS, a ________ allows you to specify port configuration options for each member port. a) Distributed Virtual Port Groups (DV Port Groups) b) Distributed Virtual Uplinks (dvUplinks) c) Network vMotion d) Bi-directional Traffic Shaping 63) On a VDS, a _______ provides a level of abstraction for the physical network adaptors (vmnics) on each host. a) Bi-directional Traffic Shaping b) Distributed Virtual Uplinks (dvUplinks) c) Network vMotion d) Distributed Virtual Port Groups (DV Port Groups) 64) On a VDS, ________ enables broader compatibility with existing networking environments using the technology. a) Network vMotion b) Bi-directional Traffic Shaping c) Private VLAN (PVLAN) Support d) Distributed Virtual Port Groups (DV Port Groups) 65) _________ simplifies monitoring and troubleshooting by tracking the networking state (such as counters and port statistics) of each virtual machine as it moves from host to host on a VDS. a) Bi-directional Traffic Shaping b) Distributed Virtual Port Groups (DV Port Groups) c) Network Provisioning d) Network vMotion 66) _________ applies traffic shaping policies on DV port group definitions, defined by average bandwidth, peak bandwidth and burst size. a) Bi-directional Traffic Shaping b) Distributed Virtual Port Groups (DV Port Groups) c) Distributed Virtual Uplinks (dvUplinks) d) Solarwinds 67) ______ is a master copy of a virtual machine that usually includes the guest OS, a set of applications, and a specific VM configuration. a) Clone b) Template c) ISO d) SHB 68) ______ is a copy of the original parent virtual machine. a) Template b) ISO c) Clone d) SHB 69) True or False. You cannot power on/off or edit a Template a) True b) False 70) True or False. You can convert the template back to Virtual Machine to update the baseline template. a) True b) False 71) True or False. You can convert back a cloned Virtual Machine. a) True b) False 72) True or False. A Clone can be created with the VM that is powered on. a) True b) False 73) True and False. You can create a Template from a VM that is powered on. a) True b) False 74) _________ is a centralized repository in vSphere 7 to help manage and distribute virtual machines, templates, ISO images, scripts, vApps and other files related to virtual machines? a) Resource Pool b) vSAN c) Storage Virtualization d) Content Library 75) What are two types of content libraries? a) Local and Subscribed b) Private and Subscribed c) Local and Reoccurring d) Internal and External 76) What is are key benefits of Virtual Orchestration? a) Accelerate cloud automaton b) Decentralize Management c) Reduce OpEx d) Increase extensibility 77) ________ is a modern workflow automation platform that simplifies and automates complex data center infrastructure tasks for increased extensibility and agility. a) Microsoft System Center Orchestrator b) vSphere Replication c) vRealize Orchestrator d) Site Recovery Manager (SRM) 78) You tie disparate tasks and procedures together using a graphical user interface Runbook Designer to create reliable, flexible, and efficient end-to-end solutions in your IT environment in what Virtual Orchestration Tool? a) vRealize Orchestrator b) vSphere Replication c) Site Recovery Manager (SRM) d) Microsoft System Center Orchestrator 79) ______ is a hypervisor-based, asynchronous replication solution for vSphere, enabling disaster recovery and data protection for all virtual machines in your environment. a) vSphere Replication b) Microsoft System Center Orchestrator c) vRealize Orchestrator d) Site Recovery Manager (SRM) 80) ________ is a disaster recovery management product from VMware that provides automated failover and disaster recovery testing. a) vSphere Replication b) Site Recovery Manager (SRM) c) Microsoft System Center Orchestrator d) vRealize Orchestrator 81) _________ providers offer network hardware, storage, and servers, as well as physical security in either a dedicated or multi-tenant environment. It also offer virtualization services and orchestration tools that can streamline IT operations within their cloud or between multiple clouds. a) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) b) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) c) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) d) Data Management-as-a-Service (DMaaS) 82) _________ providers also provide operating systems and middleware, so hardware and software tools can be delivered to users over an intra-connected network. a) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) b) Data Management-as-a-Service (DMaaS) c) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) d) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) 83) __________ providers deliver applications only, through a web interface, typically on a subscription basis. a) Software-as-a-Service (SaaS) b) Data Management-as-a-Service (DMaaS) c) Infrastructure-as-a-Service (IaaS) d) Platform-as-a-Service (PaaS) 84) _________ collects data from the environment and processes it to make recommendations, identify issues, trigger policy-based automation as well as a whole lot of analytical goodness to improve operations’ efficiency. a) Microsoft System Center Orchestrator b) vRealize Operation Manager c) vSphere Replication d) Site Recovery Manager (SRM) 85) With ________ the source must be different from the target datastore since you cannot use the same source and target datastores for the replication. a) Replication from multiple locations to a shared target location b) Clone to Template c) Replication within a single site d) Convert to Template 86) With ________ you can use more than one vCenter to replicate to target sites. Alternatively, you can copy VMs to more than one vCenter. a) Clone to Template b) Convert to Template c) Replication within a single site d) Replication from multiple locations to a shared target location 87) __________ automates the process of synchronizing recovery data between the primary and backup data center sites by using a third-party replication product or vSphere Replication to copy virtual machine data to a secondary site. a) Site Recovery Manager (SRM) b) vRealize Operation Manager c) Microsoft System Center Orchestrator d) vSphere Replication 88) What is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss after an unplanned data-loss incident, expressed as an amount of time? a) Recovery Time Objective (RTO) b) Recovery Point Objective (RPO) c) Reconstruction Point Objective (RPO) d) Reconstruction Time Objective (RTO) 89) What is the duration of time and a service level within which a unit process must be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in continuity? a) Reconstruction Point Objective (RPO) b) Reconstruction Time Objective (RTO) c) Recovery Time Objective (RTO) d) Recovery Point Objective (RPO) 90) A component is ______ when vSAN detects a permanent component failure and determines that failed component cannot recover to its original working state.  a) Absent b) Healthy c) Unhealthy d) Degraded 91) A component is ____ when vSAN detects a temporary component failure where components, including all its data, might recover and return vSAN to its original state. a) Absent b) Degraded c) Healthy d) Unhealthy 92) When at least one full RAID 1 mirror is available, or the minimum required number of data segments are available, the object is considered in what object state? a) Unhealthy b) Healthy c) Degraded d) Absent 93) What are limitations of vSANs? a) vSAN does not support vSphere DPM and Storage I/O Control. b) vSAN does not support Space-Efficient (SE) Sparse disks c) vSAN does not support hosts participating in multiple vSAN clusters. d) vSAN does not support Storage Policy-Based Management 94) What are capabilities of Cloud Orchestration? a) Accelerate virtual automation b) Initial Training Time c) Reduce Operating Expense d) Increase extensibility 95) True or False: Policies defined at the port group level override the default policies that are set at the standard switch level. a) True b) False 96) What are following VMKernel services that standard virtual switches have by default? a) Access to vSAN b) Access to IP storage such as NFS or iSCSI c) vSphere vMotion migrations d) Access to the management network 97) What are the available network policies in a standard virtual switch? a) NIC Teaming and Failover b) Security c) Protocol Filtering d) Traffic Shaping 98) What are the layers to Software Defined Data Center (SDDC) a) Cloud Management Layer b) Virtual Infrastructure Layer c) Security Layer d) Physical Layer e) Business Continuity

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