1) Who is the theorist associated with the "Life-Span Perspective" involving growth, maintenance, and regulation of loss? a) A. Sigmund Freud b) B. Paul Baltes c) C. Erik Erikson d) D. Albert Bandura 2) Which characteristic of the life-span perspective states that development does not end at early adulthood? a) A. Multidimensional b) B. Multidirectional c) C. Lifelong d) D. Plastic 3) The capacity for change throughout development is referred to as: a) A. Contextualism b) B. Plasticity c) C. Multidirectionality d) D. Organismic 4) Konrad Lorenz is famous for studying __________, an automatic and irreversible process in early life. a) A. Reinforcement b) B. Scaffolding c) C. Imprinting d) D. Social Learning 5) A _________ period is a specific time when a given event (or its absence) has a specific impact on development. a) A. Critical b) B. Sensitive c) C. Latent d) D. Reactive 6) Which model views people as "machines" that react to environmental input? a) A. Organismic b) B. Mechanistic c) C. Psychosocial d) D. Evolutionary 7) In the "Active or Reactive" debate, the Organismic model views the human as: a) A. A passive recipient of environmental stimuli b) B. A machine-like entity c) C. An active, growing organism d) D. A collection of reinforcements 8) If development is seen as a gradual, incremental refinement of skills, it is considered: a) A. Discontinuous b) B. Static c) C. Continuous d) D. Multidimensional 9) According to Freud, which part of the personality operates on the "Pleasure Principle"? a) A. Ego b) B. Superego c) C. Id d) D. Preconscious 10) The "Reality Principle" is the governing force of the: a) A. Id b) B. Ego c) C. Superego d) D. Unconscious 11) In Freud’s Iceberg analogy, the part of the mind containing instincts and desires below the surface is the: a) A. Conscious b) B. Preconscious c) 3. Unconscious d) D. Ego 12) Which part of the personality represents the "conscience" and social "shoulds"? a) A. Id b) B. Ego c) C. Superego d) D. Libido 13) Erik Erikson’s theory is known as: a) A. Psychosexual Development b) B. Psychosocial Development c) C. Cognitive Development d) D. Operant Conditioning 14) What is the "virtue" associated with Erikson's first stage, Trust vs. Mistrust? a) A. Will b) B. Purpose c) C. Hope d) D. Fidelity 15) A toddler struggling between Autonomy and Shame/Doubt is in which of Erikson's stages? a) A. Stage 1 b) B. Stage 2 c) C. Stage 3 d) D. Stage 4 16) What is the crisis faced during Adolescence according to Erikson? a) A. Initiative vs. Guilt b) B. Industry vs. Inferiority c) C. Identity vs. Identity Confusion d) D. Intimacy vs. Isolation 17) The virtue of "Wisdom" is achieved in which stage? a) A. Middle Adulthood b) B. Young Adulthood c) C. Late Adulthood d) D. Adolescence 18) Which process increases the likelihood of a behavior being repeated? a) A. Punishment b) B. Extinction c) C. Reinforcement d) D. Modeling 19) Taking away an unpleasant stimulus to increase a behavior is called: a) A. Positive Reinforcement b) B. Negative Reinforcement c) C. Positive Punishment d) D. Negative Punishment 20) Albert Bandura is the primary theorist for: a) A. Operant Conditioning b) B. Classical Conditioning c) C. Social Cognitive Theory d) D. Psychosexual Theory 21) Bandura’s concept of "Modeling" is also known as: a) A. Observational Learning b) B. Latent Learning c) C. Trial and Error d) D. Mechanistic Learning 22) The idea that a person acts on the world as the world acts on the person is called: a) A. Imprinting b) B. Reciprocal Determinism c) C. Organismic Change d) D. Plasticity 23) Which of the following is NOT one of Baltes' tenets? a) A. Development is Multidimensional b) B. Development is Plastic c) C. Development is Unidirectional d) D. Development is Contextual 24) A "Sensitive Period" differs from a "Critical Period" because it is: a) A. Less rigid and more flexible b) B. Entirely irreversible c) C. Only found in animals d) D. Only related to physical growth 25) Discontinuous development is most associated with which model? a) A. Mechanistic b) B. Organismic c) C. Behavioral d) D. Continuous 26) In the Iceberg model, information that is not currently conscious but can be easily retrieved is in the: a) A. Unconscious b) B. Non-conscious c) C. Preconscious d) D. Sub-id 27) Erikson’s Stage 4 (Middle Childhood) involves the crisis of: a) A. Trust vs. Mistrust b) B. Industry vs. Inferiority c) C. Generativity vs. Stagnation d) D. Intimacy vs. Isolation 28) The virtue of "Care" is associated with: a) A. Young Adulthood b) B. Adolescence c) C. Middle Adulthood d) D. Late Adulthood 29) Adding an unpleasant stimulus to decrease a behavior is: a) A. Negative Reinforcement b) B. Positive Punishment c) C. Negative Punishment d) D. Positive Reinforcement 30) Freud’s "Ego" acts as a: a) A. Judge b) B. Mediator c) C. Moral Compass d) D. Driver of impulses 31) Which stage of Erikson occurs in Young Adulthood? a) A. Identity vs. Confusion b) B. Intimacy vs. Isolation c) C. Generativity vs. Stagnation d) D. Integrity vs. Despair 32) B.F. Skinner is to Operant Conditioning as Bandura is to: a) A. Psychoanalysis b) B. Observational Learning c) C. Attachment Theory d) D. Imprinting 33) When a child learns to say "please" because they saw their sibling get a cookie for it, this is: a) A. Positive Reinforcement b) B. Observational Learning c) C. Negative Reinforcement d) D. Mechanistic Dilation 34) The process where sperm and ovum combine to create a zygote is: a) A. Parturition b) B. Mitosis c) C. Fertilization d) D. Implantation 35) Dizygotic twins are also known as: a) A. Identical twins b) B. Fraternal twins c) C. Monozygotic twins d) D. Clones 36) Monozygotic twins result from: a) A. Two eggs and one sperm b) B. Two eggs and two sperm c) C. One egg and two sperm d) D. The cleaving of one fertilized egg 37) How many pairs of chromosomes do humans typically have? a) A. 46 b) B. 23 c) C. 22 d) D. 48 38) The 23rd pair of chromosomes determines: a) A. Eye color b) B. IQ c) C. Sex d) D. Height 39) A male’s 23rd chromosomal pair is: a) A. XX b) B. YY c) C. XY d) D. XO 40) The underlying genetic makeup of an individual is the: a) A. Phenotype b) B. Genotype c) C. Allele d) D. Karyotype 41) The observable characteristics (like hair color or dimples) are the: a) A. Genotype b) B. Archetype c) C. Phenotype d) D. Stereotype 42) If an individual has two different alleles for a trait, they are: a) A. Homozygous b) B. Heterozygous c) C. Hemizygous d) D. Monozygotic 43) Which allele is always expressed if present? a) A. Recessive b) B. Dominant c) C. Passive d) D. Active 44) Which disorder is a metabolic condition that can be prevented by a special diet? a) A. Cystic Fibrosis b) B. Down Syndrome c) C. Phenylketonuria (PKU) d) D. Hemophilia 45) Down Syndrome is caused by an extra chromosome on the _________ pair. a) A. 13th b) B. 18th c) C. 21st d) D. 23rd 46) When parents provide both the genes and the environment for a child, it is a _________ correlation. a) A. Passive b) B. Reactive c) C. Active d) D. Niche-picking 47) "Niche-picking" is another name for which genotype-environment correlation? a) A. Passive b) B. Reactive c) C. Active d) D. Evocative 48) A happy, outgoing baby receiving more social stimulation is an example of a _________ correlation. a) A. Passive b) B. Reactive c) C. Active d) D. Negative 49) Which stage of prenatal development lasts from fertilization to 2 weeks? a) A. Embryonic b) B. Fetal c) C. Germinal d) D. Gestational 50) The Embryonic stage (2 to 8 weeks) is considered a "critical stage" because of: a) A. Rapid weight gain b) B. Organogenesis c) C. Implantation d) D. Fetal movement 51) The process of organ and major body system development is: a) A. Parturition b) B. Organogenesis c) C. Meiosis d) D. Quickening 52) The final stage of prenatal development (8 weeks to birth) is the: a) A. Germinal Stage b) B. Embryonic Stage c) C. Fetal Stage d) D. Neonatal Stage 53) Any environmental agent that can cause birth defects is a: a) A. Pathogen b) B. Teratogen c) C. Allele d) D. Mutagen 54) Which drug was responsible for babies being born with stunted or missing limbs in the 1960s? a) A. Ibuprofen b) B. Thalidomide c) C. Penicillin d) D. Nicotine 55) The leading cause of intellectual disability in the U.S. linked to prenatal exposure is: a) A. Caffeine b) B. Alcohol c) C. Marijuana d) D. Aspartame 56) What is the single most important factor in low birth weight according to the modules? a) A. Maternal Age b) B. Alcohol c) C. Nicotine d) D. Stress 57) Which prenatal assessment uses high-frequency sound waves? a) A. Amniocentesis b) B. Ultrasound c) C. CVS d) D. Fetoscopy 58) Which procedure involves sampling the fluid surrounding the fetus? a) A. Ultrasound b) B. Amniocentesis c) C. Chorionic Villus Sampling d) D. Embryoscopy 59) In the computation of phenotype, if "D" is dominant (dimples) and "d" is recessive (no dimples), what is the phenotype of "Dd"? a) A. No dimples b) B. Dimples c) C. One dimple d) D. Faded dimples 60) What are the odds of two "Dd" parents having a child with no dimples (dd)? a) A. 0% b) B. 25% c) C. 50% d) D. 75% 61) Which of the following is a chromosomal abnormality, not just a genetic one? a) A. PKU b) B. Hemophilia c) C. Down Syndrome d) D. Cystic Fibrosis 62) The male gamete is the _________ and the female gamete is the _________. a) A. Zygote; Embryo b) B. Sperm; Ovum c) C. Chromosome; DNA d) D. X; Y 63) The process of cell division in the Germinal stage is called: a) A. Mitosis b) B. Meiosis c) C. Fertilization d) D. Differentiation 64) If a woman is over 35, she is often encouraged to get _________ to check for Down Syndrome. a) A. A massage b) B. Amniocentesis c) C. More Vitamin C d) D. A C-section 65) Which of the following is NOT a teratogen? a) A. Rubella b) B. Lead c) C. Folic Acid d) D. Mercury 66) "Parturition" is the technical term for: a) A. Conception b) B. The act of giving birth c) C. Breastfeeding d) D. Puberty 67) "False labor" contractions are known as: a) A. Apgar pulses b) B. Braxton-Hicks c) C. Vernix spikes d) D. Meconium 68) At what point does the first stage of labor typically end? a) A. When the placenta is delivered b) B. When the baby's head emerges c) C. When the cervix is fully dilated to 10cm d) D. When the water breaks 69) Which hormone triggers uterine contractions and labor? a) A. Estrogen b) B. Progesterone c) C. Oxytocin d) D. Testosterone 70) Electronic Fetal Monitoring tracks the fetus’s _________ during labor. a) A. Breathing b) B. Heartbeat c) C. Eye movement d) D. Temperature 71) A baby weighing less than 2,500 grams (5.5 lbs) at birth is categorized as: a) A. Preterm b) B. Small-for-Date c) C. Low Birth Weight (LBW) d) D. Micro-infant 72) A baby born before completing 37 weeks of gestation is: a) A. Small-for-Date b) B. Postmature c) C. Preterm d) D. Average 73) Which intervention involves skin-to-skin contact to help LBW babies? a) A. Isolette Care b) B. Kangaroo Care c) C. Hydrotherapy d) D. Swaddle Care 74) A heated, glass-enclosed crib used for high-risk newborns is an: a) A. Isolette b) B. Ultrasound c) C. EFM d) D. Amnion 75) SIDS stands for: a) A. Sudden Infant Dietary Stress b) B. Sudden Infant Death Syndrome c) C. Severe Infant Digestion Sickness d) D. Standard Infant Development Stage 76) To prevent SIDS, the "Back to Sleep" campaign recommends infants sleep on their: a) A. Stomachs b) B. Sides c) C. Backs d) D. Parent's lap 77) Which of the following is a risk factor for SIDS? a) A. Using a firm mattress b) B. Sleeping with a pacifier c) C. Exposure to tobacco smoke d) D. Sleeping in a cool room 78) SIDS is often called "crib death" and is most common between ages: a) A. 0–1 month b) B. 2–4 months c) C. 12–18 months d) D. 2–3 years 79) A possible biological cause of SIDS is a defect in the: a) A. Heart valves b) B. Brain stem c) C. Lungs d) D. Spine 80) Which of the following reduces the risk of SIDS? a) A. Soft bedding/pillows b) B. Using a pacifier at sleep time c) C. Overheating the room d) D. Sleeping on the stomach 81) Which stage of labor is the longest? a) A. First Stage b) B. Second Stage c) C. Third Stage d) D. Fourth Stage 82) The second stage of labor ends with: a) A. Delivery of the placenta b) B. Full dilation c) C. Emergence of the baby from the mother's body d) D. The first contraction 83) The third stage of labor involves the: a) A. Breaking of the water b) B. Crowning of the head c) C. Delivery of the placenta d) D. First feeding 84) What is the standard score used to assess a newborn's condition at 1 and 5 minutes after birth? a) A. IQ Score b) B. Apgar Scale c) C. Brazelton Scale d) & D. Baltes Scale 85) Which letter in APGAR stands for the baby’s skin color? a) A. Appearance b) B. Activity c) C. Adaptation d) D. Alertness 86) A score of 0–3 on the Apgar scale indicates: a) A. The baby is in excellent condition b) B. The baby needs some help breathing c) C. A life-threatening emergency d) D. The baby is sleeping 87) The oily substance on a newborn's skin that protects against infection is: a) A. Lanugo b) B. Vernix Caseosa c) C. Meconium d) D. Fontanels 88) The fine, fuzzy hair on a newborn is called: a) A. Vernix b) B. Lanugo c) C. Cilia d) D. Follicles 89) A stringy, greenish-black waste matter formed in the fetal intestinal tract: a) A. Vernix b) B. Colostrum c) C. Meconium d) D. Bilirubin 90) Neonatal jaundice is caused by an immaturity of the: a) A. Heart b) B. Kidneys c) C. Liver d) D. Lungs 91) Anoxia refers to a lack of: a) A. Food b) B. Sleep c) C. Oxygen d) D. Warmth 92) The "soft spots" on a baby's head are called: a) A. Sutures b) B. Fontanels c) C. Scalpels d) D. Pores 93) Most newborns sleep about how many hours a day? a) A. 8 hours b) B. 12 hours c) C. 18 hours d) D. 22 hours 94) Which reflex causes a baby to turn its head toward a touch on the cheek? a) A. Moro reflex b) B. Rooting reflex c) C. Babinski reflex d) D. Darwinian reflex 95) The "startle reflex" where a baby throws out its arms is the: a) A. Rooting reflex b) B. Tonic neck reflex c) C. Moro reflex d) D. Walking reflex 96) Which sense is the least developed at birth? a) A. Hearing b) B. Smell c) C. Taste d) D. Vision 97) Infants prefer to look at: a) A. Solid colors b) B. Complex patterns and faces c) C. Stationary objects d) D. Dim lights 98) A mother's first milk, high in protein and antibodies, is: a) A. Formula b) B. Colostrum c) C. Casein d) D. Lactose 99) Nonorganic Failure to Thrive is often associated with: a) A. Genetic defects b) B. Lack of emotional support and affection c) C. Poor water quality d) D. Excessive exercise 100) Shaken Baby Syndrome can cause: a) A. Brain damage b) B. Paralysis c) C. Death d) D. All of the above

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