1) What did William Crookes discover using the cathode ray tube? a) A. The neutron b) B. The proton c) C. The electron d) D. The nucleus 2) What experiment did Robert Millikan use to determine the charge of the electron? a) A. Cathode ray experiment b) B. Gold foil experiment c) C. Oil drop experiment d) D. Photoelectric effect 3) Which scientist proposed the plum pudding model of the atom? a) A. Rutherford b) B. JJ Thompson c) C. Bohr d) D. Dalton 4) Who discovered the neutron by firing alpha particles at beryllium? a) A. Chadwick b) B. Bohr c) C. Rutherford d) D. Millikan 5) What does Heisenberg’s Uncertainty Principle state? a) A. Electrons are located in fixed orbits. b) B. Electrons move in circular paths around the nucleus. c) C. It is impossible to know both the velocity and position of an electron at the same time. d) D. Energy is quantised in atoms. 6) According to the Modern Periodic Law, elements are arranged in order of increasing: a) A. Atomic mass b) B. Density c) C. Atomic number d) D. Reactivity 7) Which of the following is defined as the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom? a) A. Mass number b) B. Atomic number c) C. Isotope d) D. Atomic weight 8) What is the term for atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons? a) A. Ions b) B. Molecules c) C. Isotopes d) D. Compounds 9) Which principle states that electrons fill the lowest available energy level first? a) A. Pauli Exclusion Principle b) B. Hund’s Rule c) C. Heisenberg’s Principle d) D. Aufbau Principle 10) What is the shape of a pi bond? a) A. End-on overlap of orbitals b) B. Sideways overlap of orbitals c) C. Circular overlap of orbitals d) D. No overlap of orbitals 11) What does Mendeleev’s Periodic Law state? a) A) The atomic number of elements increases in multiples of two. b) B) When elements are arranged in order of increasing atomic weight, their properties show a periodic pattern. c) C) Elements in the same group have the same number of protons. d) D) The properties of elements do not change with atomic weight. 12) What does the atomic number of an element represent? a) A) The number of electrons in an atom b) B) The number of neutrons in the nucleus c) C) The number of protons in the nucleus d) D) The total number of protons and neutrons 13) What is the mass number of an atom? a) A) The number of electrons only b) B) The total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus c) C) The number of neutrons only d) D) The number of protons only 14) What is an element? a) A) A compound made of different atoms b) B) A substance that can be split into simpler substances c) C) A substance that cannot be split into simpler substances by chemical means d) D) A substance made of ions only 15) What characterizes Dobereiner’s Triads? a) A) Three elements with the same atomic mass b) B) Three elements with similar properties where the middle element's atomic weight is the average of the other two c) C) Three metals grouped in the periodic table d) D) Three nonmetals arranged by atomic number 16) What did Newland’s Octaves suggest? a) A) Every fourth element had similar properties b) B) Elements were arranged in groups of four c) C) The properties of elements repeated every eighth element d) D) Only noble gases shared similar properties 17) What are isotopes? a) A) Atoms with different numbers of electrons b) B) Atoms with the same number of protons but different numbers of neutrons c) C) Atoms with different numbers of protons and the same number of neutrons d) D) Completely different elements 18) What does the relative atomic mass of an element represent? a) A) The mass of a single atom in kilograms b) B) The exact number of neutrons c) C) The average mass of an atom compared to one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom d) D) The mass of an electron 19) What does relative molecular mass represent? a) A) The exact weight of a single molecule b) B) The number of molecules in a mole c) C) The average mass of a molecule compared to one-twelfth the mass of a carbon-12 atom d) D) The number of atoms in a compound 20) What is molar mass? a) A) The number of atoms in one mole b) B) The total charge of one mole c) C) The mass in grams of one mole of a substance d) D) The number of protons in one mole 21) What does an empirical formula show? a) A) The actual number of atoms in a compound b) B) The ratio of atoms in the simplest whole number form c) C) The structure of a compound d) D) The molar mass of a compound 22) What does a molecular formula indicate? a) A) The actual number of atoms of each element in a molecule b) B) The structural formula c) C) The arrangement of atoms d) D) The total volume of the compound 23) What does a structural formula show? a) A) The physical state of the compound b) B) The arrangement of atoms in a molecule c) C) The atomic number of each atom d) D) The mass of the molecule 24) Which of the following is the correct sequence of processes in a mass spectrometer? a) A) Ionisation, Vaporisation, Separation, Detection, Acceleration b) B) Vaporisation, Ionisation, Acceleration, Separation, Detection c) C) Separation, Detection, Ionisation, Acceleration, Vaporisation d) D) Detection, Acceleration, Ionisation, Vaporisation, Separation 25) What does the Pauli Exclusion Principle state? a) A) Orbitals can contain an unlimited number of electrons b) B) Two electrons in an orbital must have the same spin c) C) No more than two electrons can occupy an orbital, and they must have opposite spins d) D) Electrons prefer to remain unpaired 26) What does Hund’s Rule describe? a) A) The order of increasing energy levels b) B) The energy of electrons in outer shells c) C) How electrons occupy orbitals of equal energy singly before pairing d) D) The removal of electrons from atoms 27) What is an atomic orbital? a) A. A region in space where the probability of finding an electron is high b) B. The energy level of an electron c) C. The circular path of an electron d) D.The energy level of an electron 28) What is an energy sub-level? a) A) A specific path for electrons b) B) A group of orbitals with the same energy within an atom c) C) The energy an electron gains d) D) The outermost shell of an atom 29) What is an energy level? a) A) The same as a sub-orbital b) B) The fixed energy value an electron may have in an atom c) C) A variable energy of electrons d) D) The energy stored in the nucleus 30) What does atomic radius refer to? a) A) The size of the electron cloud b) B) The full diameter of the atom c) C) Half the distance between nuclei of two bonded atoms of the same element d) D) The number of protons in an atom 31) What is first ionisation energy? a) A) Energy to remove all electrons from an atom b) B) Energy to remove the most loosely bound electron from a neutral atom in ground state c) C) Energy to form a chemical bond d) D) Energy used to excite an electron to a higher level 32) What does second ionisation energy refer to? a) A) Energy required to ionise a neutral atom b) B) Energy required to remove an electron from a doubly charged ion c) C) Energy required to remove the next most loosely bound electron from a singly charged positive ion d) D) Energy to break covalent bonds 33) What is a line emission spectrum? a) A) A rainbow formed when light passes through a prism b) B) A series of coloured lines on a dark background c) C) A pattern of black lines on a coloured background d) D) A continuous band of colours 34) What is an absorption spectrum? a) A) A set of coloured lines on a black background b) B) A dark background with no lines c) C) A spectrum with dark lines after light passes through an element d) D) A continuous wave spectrum 35) What type of light is released in the Lyman Series? a) A) Infrared light b) B) Visible light c) C) Ultraviolet light d) D) X-rays 36) The Balmer Series involves excited electrons dropping to which energy level? a) A) n = 1 b) B) n = 2 c) C) n = 3 d) D) n = 4 37) What is released when electrons fall to n = 3 in the Paschen Series? a) A) Ultraviolet light b) B) X-rays c) C) Infrared light d) D) Visible light 38) What best defines radioactivity? a) A) Emission of sound from atoms b) B) Spontaneous splitting of stable nuclei c) C) Spontaneous breaking of unstable nuclei with radiation emission d) D) Decay of elements into stable particles only 39) What are alpha particles? a) A) Electrons with negative charge b) B) Helium nuclei with positive charge and little penetrating ability c) C) Neutrons with no charge d) D) Protons with strong penetrating power 40) What is true about beta particles? a) A) They are neutrons b) B) They have greater penetrating ability than gamma rays c) C) They are electrons with negative charge d) D) They are helium nuclei 41) What describes gamma rays? a) A) Positively charged particles b) B) Low-energy radioactive particles c) C) High-energy electromagnetic radiation with high penetrating ability d) D) Visible light rays from excited atoms 42) What is the half-life of a radioactive isotope? a) A) Time for all atoms to decay b) B) Time for half the atoms in a sample to decay c) C) Time for energy to be released from the atom d) D) Time taken for an atom to gain electrons 43) What does the mnemonic "OIL RIG" stand for? a) A) Oxidation is loss of neutrons, Reduction is gain of neutrons b) B) Oxidation is loss of protons, Reduction is gain of protons c) C) Oxidation is loss of electrons, Reduction is gain of electrons d) D) Oxidation is increase in mass, Reduction is gain in electrons 44) What occurs during oxidation? a) A) Gain of electrons and increase in oxidation number b) B) Loss of electrons and decrease in oxidation number c) C) Loss of electrons and increase in oxidation number d) D) Gain of protons and increase in charge 45) What occurs during reduction? a) A) Gain of electrons and decrease in oxidation number b) B) Loss of electrons and increase in oxidation number c) C) Loss of protons and gain of mass d) D) Gain of neutrons and increase in oxidation number 46) What does the oxidation number represent? a) A) The actual number of electrons in the outer shell b) B) The number of protons in an atom c) C) The charge an atom appears to have based on electron distribution d) D) The total number of bonds in a molecule 47) What is an oxidising agent? a) A) A substance that loses electrons and is reduced b) B) A substance that gains electrons and is reduced c) C) A substance that allows oxidation by gaining electrons itself d) D) A substance that allows reduction by losing electrons 48) What is a reducing agent? a) A) A substance that gains electrons and is oxidised b) B) A substance that allows reduction to occur by losing electrons itself c) C) A substance that prevents oxidation from happening d) D) A substance that loses neutrons to cause a reaction 49) What is electrolysis? a) A) The process of making electricity from a chemical reaction b) B) The breaking up of a substance by electric current in solution or molten form c) C) The formation of covalent bonds using electricity d) D) The electroplating of metal surfaces 50) What is electroplating? a) A) Breaking a substance with current b) B) Covering a metal with plastic c) C) Using electrolysis to deposit a layer of one metal onto another d) D) Removing impurities using electricity 51) What does the electrochemical series represent? a) A) Order of metals by density b) B) List of elements by atomic number c) C) List of elements by their standard electrode potentials d) D) Chart of chemical bond strengths 52) What does the valency of an element refer to? a) A) Number of electrons in the outer shell b) B) Number of neutrons in an atom c) C) Number of bonds an atom can form d) D) Total atomic mass of the element 53) What is an ionic bond? a) A) Sharing of electrons b) B) Attraction between atoms with the same charge c) C) Electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions d) D) Weak force between neutral atoms 54) What defines a covalent bond? a) A) Complete transfer of electrons b) B) Bond between metals c) C) Sharing of a pair of electrons between two atoms d) D) Force between ions and dipoles 55) What is a polar covalent bond? a) A) Bond where electrons are shared equally b) B) Bond where electrons are completely transferred c) C) Bond where electrons are shared unequally d) D) Bond only between hydrogen atoms 56) What is an Arrhenius base? a) A) A substance that accepts protons b) B) A substance that donates protons c) C) A substance that forms hydrogen ions in solution d) D) A substance that dissociates in water to form hydroxide ions 57) According to Brønsted-Lowry theory, an acid is: a) A) A substance that releases OH⁻ ions b) B) A proton acceptor c) C) A proton donor d) D) A substance that changes colour in water 58) What is a Brønsted-Lowry base? a) A) A proton donor b) B) A hydroxide donor c) C) A proton acceptor d) D) A neutral molecule 59) What forms a conjugate acid? a) A) Loss of a proton from a base b) B) Addition of a proton to a base c) C) Addition of a hydroxide ion d) D) Removal of an electron 60) A conjugate base is formed when: a) A) A proton is added to a base b) B) A proton is removed from a Brønsted-Lowry acid c) C) A base accepts a proton d) D) A proton is removed from a Brønsted-Lowry base 61) What distinguishes a conjugate acid-base pair? a) A) They have identical charges b) B) They differ by a proton c) C) They are both acids d) D) They are both bases 62) What is a standard solution? a) A) A solution with a known colour b) B) A solution with a neutral pH c) C) A solution with accurately known concentration d) D) A solution that contains a strong base 63) What is a primary standard? a) A) A highly reactive liquid b) B) A stable, pure, water-soluble substance c) C) A weak acid used in indicators d) D) A compound that loses mass in air 64) How is the pH of a solution defined? a) A) −log₁₀ [OH⁻] b) B) −log₁₀ [H⁺] c) C) log₁₀ [H⁺] d) D) 10 × [OH⁻] 65) What is the relationship between pH and pOH? a) A) pH = 7 + pOH b) B) pH = pOH c) C) pH = 14 − pOH d) D) pH = −pOH

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