1. The expediting and processing of shop drawings is properly the responsibility of ______., D. the architect, C. the owner, A. the contractor, B. the project manager, 2. The person responsible for the day to day project direction such as supervising trades and subcontractors is ______., A. project superintendent, C. architect, B. project manager, D. project organizer, 3. What is one of the first tasks that must be accomplished by the contractor after the awarding of a contract?, D. process payroll, C. submit cash flow report, B. prepare field purchase orders, A. project schedule, 4. The project schedule should be jointly prepared with a ______., C. material & equipment schedule, B. project superintendent, D. subcontractor schedule, A. delivery schedule, 5. A ______ schedule is a detailed explanation of the next two weeks of construction activities., A. temporary, B. short term, D. partial, C. sub, 6. The type of contract that stipulates a roof as to how much the contract can be worth and encourages cost savings as well as value engineering is the ______., D. unit cost contract, B. cost-plus-fee contract, C. guaranteed maximum price contract, A. lump-sum contract, 7. Under a GMP contract, a contractor’s fee can be designated as any of the following except ______?, D. fixed percentage of the cost of the work, C. fixed fee, B. sliding-scale percentage of the cost of work, A. unit price, 8. All of the following are factors that affect equipment production except ______ according to the FLORIDA CONTRACTOR’S MANUAL., C. completion time, D. age of operator, B. climate, A. experience of the operator, 9. ______ estimates are made from limited information and are usually prepared to establish costs for budget purposes and to identify general manpower requirements., D. manpower, B. detailed, C. preliminary, A. square footage, 10. In the preliminary stage of project planning, no activity should represent more than ______., D. 7 days of work, A. 10% of the project, C. 8% of the structural work, B. 2 weeks duration, 11. A subcontractor is required to have a Performance Bond on the project for Rofer Construction Inc, ______ must be attached to the bond to make it binding., A. An insurance certificate, D. A subcontract agreement, C. A staple, B. A power of attorney, 12. It is the responsibility of the ______ to notify a vendor when they are in default of the subcontract agreement., C. project manager, B. owner, A. contractor, D. project superintendent, 13. What document should not be submitted to the contractor for approval, before the subcontractor commences work?, C. insurance certificate, D. performance bond, A. subcontractor agreement, B. copy of supplier invoice, 14. A short term schedule is a detailed explanation of the next two weeks of construction activities. The ______ should take the primary role in developing this schedule., A. project manager, B. project superintendent, D. subcontractor, C. project engineer, 15. Rofer Construction Inc. has notified in writing, Albright Aluminum Company, the subcontractor on the construction project of defective workmanship on the new ceiling panels. The subcontractor has ignored the notification. Rofer Construction repaired the ceiling panel ten days later. Rofer Construction can recover the cost by issuing a ______ against the subcontractor., C. back charge, A. change order, B. letter of intent, D. purchase order, 16. ______ is/are used to represent any sequencing of priorities among the activities which constitute a project., A. An event, C. A legend, D. A network, B. Arrows, 17. An activity is represented in a Precedence Diagram by a ______ and is identified by an activity number., C. arrows, A. rectangular box, B. circle, D. triangle, 18. Which of the following is not a “Network Analysis” system?, B. CPA, A. CPM, D. PERK, C. PERT, 19. A project schedule should be formally reviewed and updated and progress is to be posted at least ______., B. weekly, D. monthly, A. daily, C. bi-weekly, 20. The scheduling development phase that is adequate to control overall project length until more detail is known and provides progress check is ______ according to the Fl. CM., D. pre-start up, C. definition, A. feasibility, B. conceptual, 21. National surveys indicate that many general contractors subcontract approximately ______% of the work. (No include materials purchases), A. 30, D. 65, B. 50, C. 60, 22. When it is possible to start any activity independently, but not to complete it before another is completed causes an overlap known as a ______., D. Precedence, C. LAG, B. LEAD, A. LAP, 23. The project schedule should be jointly prepared with a ______ schedule., D. labor, C. material and equipment, B. draw, A. subcontractor, 24. All of the following may be requests (change orders) by a subcontractor except ______?, A. requests for compensation for work already in their scope of work, B. requests for compensation for work missed on a bid, C. requests for compensation for work not already in their scope of work, D. requests for extra work beyond the scope of the contract, 25. All of the following are legitimate critical path decision except ______., A. Activity duration necessary to carry out each activity, B. Project schedule, D. Defined activities and restraints, C. A pre-determined contract completion date, 26. The CSI – Masterformat divides the specifications into ______ technical divisions., B. 48, D. 50, C. 49, A. 47, 27. The first step in the scheduling process is to ______., C. Develop the activity durations, D. Figure total manpower levels, A. Determine contract completion date, B. Define the project and activities and restraints, 28. The procedure under which progress billings are accelerated in relation to costs incurred by assigning higher values to portion of the contract that will be completed in the early stages is known as ______., A. Front end loading, B. Contract overrun, C. Back end lightening, D. Unbalanced loading, 29. Florida allows penalties up to ______ per violation for environmental non-compliance., C. 1,000 per day, B. 70,000, D. 10,000 per day, A. 10,000
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Chapter 10 Project Management
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