Why is digoxin especially useful in heart failure with atrial fibrillation?, A) It strongly activates β-receptors, B) It slows AV nodal conduction → controls ventricular rate, C) It prevents ventricular arrhythmias, D) It increases RAAS activity Arrhythmia, Which hormone is deficient in diabetes insipidus and replaced by desmopressin?, A. Insulin, B. ADH (vasopressin), C. Cortisol, D. Thyroxine, Desmopressin is commonly used to treat:, A. Diabetes insipidus, B. Diabetes mellitus type 2, C. Hyperthyroidism, D. Hypertension, Long-term corticosteroid therapy may cause:, A. Hyperglycemia, B. Severe hypoglycemia, C. Hypotension in all patients, D. Reduced infection risk, Which drug is used to treat adrenal insufficiency?, A. Hydrocortisone, B. Methimazole, C. Metformin, D. Levothyroxine only, GLP-1 receptor agonists generally:, A. Increase appetite, B. Increase glucose-dependent insulin secretion and reduce glucagon, C. Cause permanent hyperglycemia, D. Replace thyroid hormone, Which medication is a GLP-1 receptor agonist?, A. Semaglutide, B. Metformin, C. Glibenclamide, D. Levothyroxine, Which drug stimulates insulin secretion from pancreatic beta cells?, A. Glibenclamide (glyburide), B. Metformin, C. Levothyroxine, D. Hydrocortisone, A common adverse effect of metformin is:, A. Gastrointestinal upset, B. Severe hypoglycemia in most patients, C. Hypertension, D. Hyperthyroidism, Metformin is commonly used as first-line treatment for:, A. Type 1 diabetes only, B. Type 2 diabetes, C. Hyperthyroidism, D. Addison disease, Which insulin is considered long-acting?, A. Regular insulin, B. Lispro, C. Glargine, D. Aspart, Which insulin has the most rapid onset?, A. Lispro, B. NPH, C. Glargine, D. Detemir, The most important adverse effect of insulin therapy is:, A. Hypercalcemia, B. Hypoglycemia, C. Hypertension, D. Hyperthyroidism, Which hormone lowers blood glucose?, A. Glucagon, B. Insulin, C. Cortisol, D. Growth hormone, Propylthiouracil (PTU) works mainly by:, A. Increasing thyroid hormone synthesis, B. Decreasing thyroid hormone synthesis and peripheral T4→T3 conversion, C. Increasing insulin secretion, D. Increasing cortisol production, A serious adverse effect of methimazole is:, A. Agranulocytosis, B. Hyperglycemia, C. Hypertension, D. Hypokalemia, Which drug is used to treat hyperthyroidism?, A. Levothyroxine, B. Methimazole, C. Hydrocortisone, D. Desmopressin, Levothyroxine is a synthetic form of:, A. Insulin, B. Cortisol, C. Thyroxine (T4), D. Aldosterone, Which drug is commonly used to treat hypothyroidism?, A. Methimazole, B. Levothyroxine, C. Propylthiouracil, D. Insulin, The main therapeutic goal of antihypertensive drugs is to:, A. Increase blood pressure, B. Reduce cardiovascular and renal complications, C. Increase heart rate, D. Increase sodium retention, Which drug is commonly used for hypertensive emergency because it can be given IV and rapidly titrated?, A. Sodium nitroprusside, B. Hydrochlorothiazide, C. Losartan, D. Spironolactone, Abrupt withdrawal of clonidine can cause:, A. Rebound hypertension, B. Severe hypoglycemia, C. Hypercalcemia, D. Bradycardia only, Clonidine lowers blood pressure mainly by:, A. Increasing sodium retention, B. Reducing sympathetic outflow, C. Increasing heart rate, D. Increasing aldosterone, Which medication is an alpha-1 blocker?, A. Doxazosin, B. Atenolol, C. Amlodipine, D. Losartan, Which drug should generally be avoided during pregnancy because of fetal risk?, A. Labetalol, B. ACE inhibitors, C. Nifedipine, D. Methyldopa, A major risk of spironolactone is:, A. Hypokalemia, B. Hyperkalemia, C. Hypoglycemia, D. Hypernatremia, Spironolactone is a:, A. Potassium-sparing diuretic, B. Loop diuretic, C. Beta blocker, D. Calcium-channel blocker, Which antihypertensive can cause ankle/peripheral edema?, A. Amlodipine, B. Lisinopril, C. Losartan, D. Hydrochlorothiazide, Beta blockers can cause:, A. Tachycardia, B. Bradycardia, C. Severe hyperglycemia in all patients, D. Increased heart rate, Which drug is a beta-1 selective blocker?, A. Metoprolol, B. Losartan, C. Amlodipine, D. Enalapril, Which electrolyte abnormality can occur with furosemide?, A. Hyperkalemia, B. Hypokalemia, C. Hypercalcemia, D. Hypernatremia, Furosemide belongs to which class?, A. Loop diuretic, B. ACE inhibitor, C. Beta blocker, D. ARB, Which drug is a thiazide diuretic?, A. Furosemide, B. Hydrochlorothiazide, C. Spironolactone, D. Mannitol, Which antihypertensive is a calcium-channel blocker?, A. Amlodipine, B. Captopril, C. Losartan, D. Hydrochlorothiazide, A common adverse effect of ACE inhibitors is:, A. Dry cough, B. Constipation, C. Hypoglycemia, D. Hearing loss, Which drug is an ACE inhibitor?, A. Losartan, B. Lisinopril, C. Amlodipine, D. Atenolol, Which is an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB)?, A. Enalapril, B. Furosemide, C. Losartan, D. Propranolol, Which statement best defines a psychotropic drug?, A. A medicine that prevents skin disease, B. A medicine that treats bone disease, C. A medicine that changes brain function, D. A medicine that destroys brain tissue, Pharmacokinetics describes:, A. What the body does to a drug, B. What a drug does to the body, C. What genes do to a drug, D. What behavior does to a drug, Pharmacodynamics describes:, A. How the body removes a drug, B. How genes influence a drug, C. How behavior changes a drug, D. How a drug affects the body, Which medication was the first antipsychotic drug?, A. Imipramine, B. Chlorpromazine, C. Fluoxetine, D. Diazepam, What is the main action of Haloperidol?, A. Blocking dopamine D2 receptors, B. Blocking serotonin 5-HT1 receptors, C. Stimulating histamine H1 receptors, D. Stimulating muscarinic M1 receptors, Which schizophrenia symptoms usually respond best to antipsychotic medication?, A. Negative symptoms, B. Cognitive symptoms, C. Positive symptoms, D. Functional symptoms, Which antipsychotic has a high risk of extrapyramidal symptoms?, A. Clozapine, B. Haloperidol, C. Quetiapine, D. Olanzapine, Which antipsychotic commonly causes strong sedation and anticholinergic effects?, A. Aripiprazole, B. Ziprasidone, C. Haloperidol, D. Chlorpromazine, What is an appropriate first step when extrapyramidal symptoms occur?, A. Increase the antipsychotic dose, B. Add another antipsychotic drug, C. Reduce the antipsychotic dose, D. Continue the same treatment, Which mechanism is associated with tardive dyskinesia?, A. Long-term blockade of D2 receptors, B. Short-term blockade of H1 receptors, C. Sudden stimulation of M1 receptors, D. Persistent activation of alpha1 receptors, Which receptor blockade commonly causes orthostatic hypotension?, A. Dopamine D2 receptor blockade, B. Histamine H1 receptor blockade, C. Serotonin 5-HT2 receptor blockade, D. Alpha1-adrenergic receptor blockade, Which receptor blockade commonly causes sedation and weight gain?, A. Dopamine D2 receptor blockade, B. Histamine H1 receptor blockade, C. Muscarinic M1 receptor blockade, D. Alpha1-adrenergic receptor blockade, Which antipsychotic commonly increases the prolactin level?, A. Aripiprazole, B. Quetiapine, C. Risperidone, D. Clozapine, Which antipsychotic acts as a partial dopamine D2 agonist?, A. Haloperidol, B. Chlorpromazine, C. Risperidone, D. Aripiprazole, Which antipsychotic is effective for treatment-resistant schizophrenia?, A. Clozapine, B. Paliperidone, C. Ziprasidone, D. Haloperidol, A 25-year-old man develops muscle stiffness, hand tremor and restlessness after starting haloperidol. What is the most likely adverse effect?, A. Metabolic syndrome, B. Extrapyramidal symptoms, C. Negative symptoms, D. Cognitive symptoms, A patient taking chlorpromazine feels dizzy when standing up from a chair. What is the best advice?, A. Restrict fluids during daytime, B. Double the evening dose, C. Exercise immediately after dosing, D. Rise slowly from sitting, A woman taking risperidone develops breast-milk production and irregular menstruation. What is the most likely mechanism?, A. Reduced insulin from M1 blockade, B. Decreased cortisol from H1 blockade, C. Increased prolactin from D2 blockade, D. Elevated thyroxine from alpha1 blockade, A patient continues to have severe psychosis and suicidal thoughts despite adequate trials of other antipsychotics. Which medication is most appropriate?, A. Clozapine, B. Fluphenazine, C. Perphenazine, D. Thioridazine, A patient taking haloperidol develops a painful neck spasm and abnormal upward movement of the eyes. What is the most likely condition?, A. Metabolic syndrome, B. Tardive dyskinesia, C. Acute dystonia, D. Orthostatic hypotension, A patient taking clozapine develops fever, sore throat and severe weakness. Which complication should be suspected?, A. Agranulocytosis, B. Hyperprolactinemia, C. Acute dystonia, D. Orthostatic hypotension, A patient taking olanzapine develops increased appetite, weight gain and high blood glucose. What is the most likely adverse effect?, A. Acute akathisia, B. Tardive dyskinesia, C. Hyperprolactinemia, D. Metabolic syndrome, A patient taking an antipsychotic develops repetitive lip-smacking and involuntary tongue movements after long-term treatment. What is the most likely diagnosis?, A. Acute dystonia, B. Tardive dyskinesia, C. Drug-induced anxiety, D. Orthostatic hypotension, A patient frequently forgets to take oral antipsychotic medication and experiences repeated relapses. Which treatment form may improve adherence?, A. Sublingual medication, B. Intravenous medication, C. Long-acting injection, D. Short-acting injection, Which brain chemicals may be low in depression?, A. Dopamine and histamine, B. Serotonin and norepinephrine, C. Calcium and potassium, D. Insulin and glucagon, Which medication is an SSRI antidepressant?, A. Imipramine, B. Phenelzine, C. Mirtazapine, D. Fluoxetine, Which is a common side effect of SSRIs?, A. Nausea, B. Jaundice, C. Paralysis, D. Deafness, How long may antidepressants take to work fully?, A. One hour, B. One day, C. Several weeks, D. Several years, Why are Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) dangerous in overdose?, A. They cause mild headache, B. They can affect the heart, C. They improve sleep quickly, D. They increase appetite slightly, Which medication is a TCA antidepressant?, A. Amitriptyline, B. Fluoxetine, C. Phenelzine, D. Duloxetine, Which TCA is commonly used to treat OCD?, A. Nortriptyline, B. Amitriptyline, C. Desipramine, D. Clomipramine, Which is a common side effect of TCAs?, A. Excessive saliva, B. Frequent urination, C. Dry mouth, D. Severe diarrhoea, SNRIs may help treat depression and which other problem?, A.Skin infection, B. Chronic pain, C. Bone fracture, D. Eye infection

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