A 10-year-old boy is admitted to the ER with lower right quadrant pain and tenderness that mimics appendicitis. During surgery, the appendix appears normal; an enlarged node is removed and cultured. Small gram-negative bacilli are isolated from the room temperature plate. The organism most likely is:, A. Prevotella melaninogenica, B. Shigella sonnei, C. Listeria monocytogenes, D. Yersinia enterocolitica, Biochemical reactions of an organism are consistent with Salmonella. A suspension is tested in polyvalent antiserum A through G and in Vi antiserum. There is agglutination in the Vi antiserum only. What should be done next?, A. Boil suspension of the organism for 10 minutes to inactivate the Vi antigen, B. Test organism with individual antisera for agglutination, C. Report "no Salmonella isolated", D. Repeat biochemical identification of the organism, The optimal incubator temperature for isolation of the Campylobacter jejuni/coli group is:, A. 4°C, B. 20°C, C. 25°C, D. 42°C, Which test can be used to diagnose infection and confirm eradication of Helicobacter pylori?, A. DNase, B. Hippurate hydrolysis, C. String test, D. Urea breath test, A Gram stain of a touch prep from a gastric biopsy shows gram-negative bacilli that are slender and curved. The most likely pathogen is:, A. Burkholderia cepacia, B. Corynebacterium urealyticum, C. Helicobacter pylori, D. Pasteurella multocida, A very bloody stool is received by the laboratory. The following day a pathogenic strain of E. coli is isolated. Which sugar should this isolate be tested against to begin the identification process?, A. Mannitol, B. Sorbitol, C. Lactose, D. Arabinose, Optimum growth of Campylobacter jejuni is obtained on suitable media incubated at 42°C in an atmosphere containing:, A. 6% O₂, 10-15% CO₂, 85-90% nitrogen, B. 10% H₂, 5% CO₂, 85% nitrogen, C. 10% H₂, 10% CO₂, 80% nitrogen, D. 25% O₂, 5% CO₂, 70% nitrogen, A medical technologist is working on a stool culture from a patient with severe, bloody diarrhea. She wants to set up biochemicals to differentiate Shigella and E. coli. Which of the following tests would be the most appropriate?, A. Hydrogen sulfide, ONPG, motility, urease, B. Lactose, indole, ONPG, motility, C. Urease, citrate, VP, hydrogen sulfide, D. Gas, MR, urease, citrate, Which organism commonly causes food poisoning by consumption of foods containing excessive populations of organisms and/or preformed enterotoxin?, A. Salmonella enteritidis, B. Shigella sonnei, C. Bacillus cereus, D. Aeromonas hydrophila, The laboratory is considering adoption of a rapid and sensitive "stand alone" method that detects Clostridioides difficile toxins A and B. Which one of the following testing methodologies will provide this?, A. Cell culture cytotoxin assay, B. Latex agglutination, C. Lecithinase production, D. NAAT, Clostridioides difficile can be detected by:, A. Fluorescent staining, B. Glutamate dehydrogenase, C. Growth on LKV media, D. High pressure liquid chromatography, If a stool sample is sent to the laboratory to rule out Clostridioides difficile, what medium should the microbiologist use, and what is the appearance of this organism on this medium?, A. BBE: colonies turn black, B. Brucella agar: red pigmented colonies, C. CCFA: yellow, ground glass colonies, D. CNA: double zone hemolytic colonies, The enterotoxin produced by certain strains of hemolytic, coagulase-positive Staphylococcus aureus:, A. Is the primary cause of subacute endocarditis, B. Creates a biofilm on indwelling catheters, C. Causes a rapidly occurring (2-6 hours after ingestion) food poisoning, D. Is of extremely low virulence, After being admitted to the hospital with an oozing leg wound post-operation, a 56-year-old male has 2 sets of blood cultures that grow gram-positive cocci. CAMP test: negative; hippurate hydrolysis: negative; PYR: positive; bacitracin: sensitive; 6.5% NaCl: no growth; bile esculin: negative. The most likely identification is:, A. Streptococcus pyogenes, B. Streptococcus agalactiae, C. Staphylococcus aureus, D. Enterococcus faecalis, A young boy who routinely bites his fingernails develops a wound on his right pointer finger. A culture reveals alpha-hemolytic, dry colonies on the blood and CNA plates that are catalase-negative, resistant to optochin, and 6.5% NaCl negative. Gram stain: gram-positive cocci in chains. The organism most likely isolated is:, A. Enterococcus faecium, B. Enterococcus faecalis, C. Viridans streptococci, D. Streptococcus agalactiae, An organism isolated from the surface of a skin burn is found to produce a diffusible green pigment on a blood agar plate. Further studies would most likely show the organism to be:, A. Staphylococcus aureus, B. Serratia marcescens, C. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica, D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Nonfermenting gram-negative bacilli are isolated from a wound. The nitrate and oxidase are strongly positive. The growth on Mueller-Hinton agar produces pyoverdin. The organism is:, A. Burkholderia cepacia, B. Moraxella lacunata, C. Elizabethkingia meningoseptica, D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, Gram-negative bacilli with bipolar staining are isolated from a wound infection caused by a bite from a pet cat. Oxidase: positive; glucose OF: fermentative; motility: negative; MacConkey agar: no growth. The most likely organism is:, A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, B. Pasteurella multocida, C. Aeromonas hydrophila, D. Vibrio cholerae, While swimming in a lake near his home, a young boy cut his foot, and an infection developed. The culture grew a nonfastidious gram-negative, oxidase-positive, beta-hemolytic, motile bacilli that produced deoxyribonuclease (DNase). The most likely identification is:, A. Enterobacter cloacae, B. Serratia marcescens, C. Aeromonas hydrophila, D. Escherichia coli, A child is bitten on the arm by her sibling and the resulting wound grows a slender gram-negative bacilli. Growth on SBA: colonies that "pit" the agar; colonies odor: like bleach; catalase: negative; oxidase: positive; TSI: no growth. The identification is:, A. Moraxella catarrhalis, B. Eikenella corrodens, C. Kingella kingae, D. Legionella pneumophila, A specimen from a foot ulcer of a 52-year-old male diabetic patient is sent for culture. Results from a clear colony on MacConkey agar: oxidase: positive; catalase: positive; OF tubes: oxidation positive; pigment production: blue/green; growth at 42°C: positive. The organism is:, A. Acinetobacter baumannii, B. Serratia marcescens, C. Stenotrophomonas maltophilia, D. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, A 26-year-old female boxer goes to her doctor with lacerations on her right hand and a swollen knuckle from accidentally striking her partner in the mouth. At 48 hours: colonies on blood and chocolate plate with no growth on MacConkey; Gram stain: small, slender, gram-negative bacilli; oxidase: positive; indole: negative; reduces nitrate to nitrite; does not require X and V factors; catalase: negative. The most likely identification is:, A. Pasteurella multocida, B. Eikenella corrodens, C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, D. Escherichia coli, A young girl cuts her foot on a rock while swimming in the ocean. A culture grows non-lactose fermenting gram-negative bacilli that produce copious amounts of hydrogen sulfide and gas, is indole-positive and motile. The organism most likely isolated is:, A. Shigella species, B. Escherichia species, C. Edwardsiella species, D. Klebsiella species, Fluid from a cutaneous black lesion is submitted for routine bacterial culture. After 18 hours at 35°C there is no growth on MacConkey agar, but 3+ growth on sheep blood agar. The colonies are nonhemolytic, nonmotile, 4-5 mm in diameter and off-white with a ground glass appearance. Each colony has an irregular edge with comma-shaped outgrowths that stand up like "beaten egg whites" when gently lifted. A Gram stain shows large, gram-positive rectangular bacilli. The organism is most likely:, A. Clostridium perfringens, B. Aeromonas hydrophila, C. Bacillus anthracis, D. Mycobacterium marinum, An aspirate of a deep wound is plated on blood agar plates and incubated aerobically and anaerobically. At 24 hours there is growth on both plates. This indicates that the organism is a(n):, A. Nonfermenter, B. Obligate anaerobe, C. Aerobe, D. Facultative anaerobe, The characteristic that is most commonly associated with the presence of strict anaerobic bacteria and can be taken as presumptive evidence of their presence in a clinical specimen is the:, A. Presence of a single bacterial species, B. Production of gas in a thioglycolate broth culture, C. Growth on a blood agar plate incubated in an anaerobic jar, D. Presence of a foul, putrid odor from tissue specimens and cultures, Gram stain of a thigh wound shows many gram-positive spore-forming bacilli. The specimen is placed on brain-heart infusion blood agar and incubated aerobically at 35°C for 3 days. At the end of that time, the plates show no growth. The most likely explanation is that some of the specimen should have been incubated:, A. On chocolate agar, B. For 5 days, C. Under 5% CO₂, D. Anaerobically, An aspirate of a deep wound is plated on blood agar plates aerobically and anaerobically. At 48 hours there is growth on the anaerobic plate only. The next step in the evaluation of this culture is to:, A. Reincubate both plates for another 24 hours, B. Gram stain and begin organism identification, C. Call physician and request blood culture, D. Set up a Bauer-Kirby susceptibility test, The growth results shown in this table are observed on media inoculated with a foot abscess aspirate and incubated in 3-5% CO₂: SBA: 2+ large gray colonies; PEA: no growth; chocolate: 3+ large gray colonies; MacConkey: 3+ lactose fermenters; thioglycolate broth: gram-negative bacilli and gram-positive bacilli. Biochemicals are set up on the colonies from the MacConkey agar plate. What should the microbiologist do next?, A. Set up biochemicals on the colonies from SBA, B. Gram stain colonies on SBA, C. Subculture thioglycolate broth to SBA aerobic and SBA anaerobic, D. Test colonies on chocolate agar with hemin and NAD, Anaerobic, box-car shaped, beta-hemolytic gram-positive bacilli isolated from a foot wound are most likely:, A. Actinomyces israelii, B. Clostridium perfringens, C. Bacillus subtilis, D. Eggerthella lenta, Which organism is the most common anaerobic bacteria isolated from infectious processes of soft tissue and anaerobic bacteremia?, A. Bacteroides fragilis, B. Fusobacterium nucleatum, C. Porphyromonas asaccharolytica, D. Clostridium perfringens, An organism that may be mistaken for Neisseria gonorrhoeae in Gram-stained smears of uterine cervix exudates is:, A. Lactobacillus species, B. Streptococcus agalactiae, C. Pseudomonas aeruginosa, D. Moraxella osloensis, A 24-year-old man presents with pain on urination and urethral discharge. A Gram stain of the discharge is seen in the image. The most likely identification is:, A. Acinetobacter baumannii, B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, C. Haemophilus ducreyi, D. Escherichia coli, A pregnant patient is screened at 36 weeks' gestation for group B Streptococcus (GBS). A vaginal swab is collected and cultured in Todd-Hewitt broth with gentamicin and nalidixic acid. The broth is subcultured onto sheep blood agar after 24 hours. No GBS are seen and results are reported as negative. The patient later delivers an infant with early onset GBS disease. The most likely reason for the negative GBS culture is:, The patient was screened too early since screening is recommended after 38 weeks' gestation, B. A vaginal swab was collected instead of a vaginal/rectal swab, C. The Todd-Hewitt broth used was inhibitory to the organism, D. The selective broth was incubated only 24 hours before subculture, A urethral swab obtained from a man with a urethral exudate is plated directly on chocolate agar and modified Thayer-Martin agar, and a Gram stain is made. The Gram stain shows gram-negative diplococci. The culture plates are incubated at 35°C in ambient air, but have no growth at 48 hours. The most likely failure for organism growth is that the:, A. Wrong media are used, B. Anaerobic chocolate agar plate not set up, C. Organism only grows at room temperature, D. Organism requires CO₂ for growth, Which nonculture method is best for the diagnosis of Neisseria gonorrhoeae in an adult female?, A. Clinical history, B. Gram stain of cervical secretions, C. MALDI-TOF MS, D. NAAT, The laboratory aid prepared and performed a Gram stain of a vaginal smear for Neisseria gonorrhoeae. The findings: many white blood cells; few epithelial cells; many gram-positive bacilli; few gram-negative diplococci; few gram-positive cocci in chains. The technologist should:, A. Report out smear positive for gonorrhea, B. Report out smear negative for gonorrhea, C. Request a new specimen due to number of white blood cells, D. Not read or report a Gram stain on a vaginal specimen, A wet mount of vaginal fluid is examined microscopically and large squamous epithelial cells are seen with gram-variable bacilli clustered on the cell edges. The pH of the fluid is 5.0. The most likely pathogen is:, A. Escherichia coli, B. Arcanobacterium haemolyticum, C. Gardnerella vaginalis, D. Lactobacillus species, Which organism fails to grow on artificial media or in cell cultures?, A. Chlamydia trachomatis, B. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, C. Treponema pallidum, D. Herpes simplex virus, Darkfield microscopy is used to visualize:, A. Borrelia recurrentis, B. Mycoplasma pneumoniae, C. Treponema pallidum, D. Legionella pneumophila, A 29-year-old man is seen for recurrence of a purulent urethral discharge 10 days after the successful treatment of culture proven gonorrhea. The most likely etiology of his urethritis is:, A. Mycoplasma hominis, B. Chlamydia trachomatis, C. Trichomonas vaginalis, D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, Ureaplasma urealyticum is difficult to grow in the laboratory on routine media because of its requirement for:, A. Sterols, B. Horse blood, C. Ferric pyrophosphate, D. Surfactant such as Tween® 80, The colony count from a suprapubic urine culture growing 10 colonies of Staphylococcus saprophyticus is:, A. 0 CFU/mL, B. 100 CFU/mL, C. 1000 CFU/mL, D. 100 000 CFU/mL, A catheterized urine is inoculated onto blood and MacConkey agar using a 0.01 mL loop. After 24 hours, 68 colonies of a small translucent nonhemolytic organism grew on blood agar, but not MacConkey. Testing reveals small gram-positive, catalase-negative cocci. The preliminary report and follow up testing would be:, A. Growth of 680 CFU/mL of gram-positive cocci, optochin and bacitracin susceptibility tests to follow, B. Growth of 6800 CFU/mL of a Staphylococcus species, latex agglutination test to follow, C. Growth of 6800 CFU/mL of a Streptococcus species, esculin hydrolysis and 6.5% NaCl growth test to follow, D. Growth of 6800 CFU/mL of a Streptococcus species, no further testing, Children who have infections with beta-hemolytic streptococci can develop:, A. Acute pyelonephritis, B. Acute glomerulonephritis, C. Chronic glomerulonephritis, D. Nephrosis, A clean-catch urine culture (obtained with a 0.01 mL calibrated loop) grows 60 colonies of Escherichia coli. Which of the following represents the final colony count in CFU/mL?, A. 60 CFU/mL, B. 600 CFU/mL, C. 6000 CFU/mL, D. 60 000 CFU/mL, Infection of the urinary tract is most frequently associated with:, A. Staphylococcus aureus, B. Escherichia coli, C. Enterococcus faecalis, D. Serratia marcescens, >100 000 CFU/mL of a gram-negative bacilli are isolated on MacConkey from a urine specimen. Glucose: acid, gas produced; indole: negative; urea: positive; TDA: positive; H₂S: positive. The organism is most likely:, A. Morganella morganii, B. Proteus mirabilis, C. Proteus vulgaris, D. Providencia stuartii, A urine culture has the results: sheep blood: swarming; Columbia CNA: no growth; MacConkey: >100 000 CFU/mL non-lactose-fermenter and >100 000 CFU/mL non-lactose-fermenter with red pigment. The isolates from MacConkey agar: TSI: alk/acid (both); urea: positive (isolate 1), negative (isolate 2); TDA: positive (isolate 1), negative (isolate 2); H₂S: positive (isolate 1), negative (isolate 2). The organisms are most likely:, A. Proteus vulgaris and Enterobacter cloacae, B. Proteus mirabilis and Serratia marcescens, C. Morganella morganii and Klebsiella pneumoniae, D. Providencia stuartii and Serratia liquefaciens, A clean-catch urine sample from a nursing home patient is cultured using a 0.001 mL loop. It grows 67 colonies of a lactose fermenter. TSI: acid/acid; oxidase: negative; motility: positive; indole: negative; citrate: positive; VP: positive; lysine decarboxylase: negative; ornithine decarboxylase: positive; urea: negative. What should the microbiologist report?, A. 670 CFU/mL Serratia marcescens, B. 6700 CFU/mL Providencia stuartii, C. 67 000 CFU/mL Enterobacter cloacae, D. 67 000 CFU/mL Klebsiella oxytoca, A Foley catheter urine specimen from an 88-year-old male patient is received for culture. At 24 hours, the culture is growing 100 000 CFU/mL colonies of non-lactose-fermenting gram-negative bacilli. The isolate tested positive for indole, ornithine decarboxylase, urease, motility, and phenylalanine deaminase, and negative for hydrogen sulfide production. The organism isolated is most likely:, A. Edwardsiella species, B. Morganella species, C. Hafnia species, D. Shigella species, A jaundiced 7-year-old boy, with a history of playing in a pond in a rat-infested area, has a urine specimen submitted for a direct darkfield examination. Several spiral organisms are seen. Which organism would most likely be responsible?, A. Cardiobacterium hominis, B. Streptobacillus moniliformis, C. Listeria monocytogenes, D. Leptospira interrogans, What organism combination is appropriate to serve as quality control for the listed test or organism characteristic?, A. Beta-hemolysis: Staphylococcus aureus and Streptococcus pyogenes, B. Catalase: Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis, C. H₂S production: Proteus mirabilis and Salmonella species, D. Indole: Escherichia coli and Proteus mirabilis, A urine isolate Gram stain shows gram-positive cocci in clusters. The organism tested catalase-positive. To identify this organism from culture, the technician should perform a coagulase test and a/an:, A. Polymyxin B susceptibility, B. Novobiocin susceptibility, C. Oxidase, D. Beta-lactamase, Viridans streptococci can be differentiated from Streptococcus pneumoniae by:, A. Alpha hemolysis, B. Colony morphology, C. Catalase reaction result, D. Bile solubility, A reliable test for distinguishing Staphylococcus aureus from other staphylococci is:, A. Oxidase, B. Coagulase, C. Catalase, D. Optochin susceptibility, The optochin disk is used for the identification of:, A. Haemophilus influenzae, B. Group A beta-hemolytic streptococci, C. Streptococcus pneumoniae, D. Enterococcus, Interpret the test shown in the image. The most likely organism is:, A. Staphylococcus aureus, B. Group A Streptococcus, C. Streptococcus pneumoniae, D. Group B Streptococcus, Gamma-hemolytic streptococci that blacken bile esculin agar but do not grow in 6.5% NaCl broth are most likely:, A. Group B Streptococcus, B. Enterococcus, C. Group D Streptococcus (Streptococcus bovis group), D. Streptococcus pneumoniae, After 24 hours a blood culture from a newborn grows catalase-negative, gram-positive cocci. The bacterial colonies are small, translucent and beta-hemolytic on a blood agar plate. Bacitracin: resistant; CAMP reaction: positive; bile esculin: not hydrolyzed; 6.5% NaCl broth: no growth. The next step would be to:, A. Perform a Streptococcus group typing, B. Report the organism as Streptococcus pneumoniae, C. Report the organism as Staphylococcus aureus, D. Report the organism as Staphylococcus epidermidis, Nonhemolytic streptococci that have been isolated from an ear culture grow up to the edge of a 0.04 unit bacitracin disk. Which of the following tests would help to determine if the organism is Enterococcus?, A. Hydrolysis of PYR, B. Growth in the presence of penicillin, C. Optochin susceptibility, D. Fermentation of mannitol, A beta-hemolytic Streptococcus that is bacitracin-sensitive and CAMP-negative is:, A. Group B, B. Group A, C. Beta-hemolytic, not group A, B, or D, D. Group D, The organism seen in the image below is bacitracin-resistant and CAMP-positive. The identification is:, A. Staphylococcus saprophyticus, B. Streptococcus agalactiae, C. Moraxella catarrhalis group B, D. Streptococcus pneumoniae, Group B, beta-hemolytic streptococci may be distinguished from other hemolytic streptococci by which of the following procedures?, A. Latex antigen grouping, B. Growth in 6.5% NaCl broth, C. Growth on bile esculin medium, D. Bacitracin susceptibility, It is important to differentiate between Enterococcus and group D streptococci because:, A. Viridans streptococci are often confused with enterococci, B. Several enterococci cause severe puerperal sepsis, C. Group D streptococci are avirulent, D. Enterococci often show more antibiotic resistance than group D streptococci, Streptococcus pneumoniae can be differentiated best from the viridans group of streptococci by:, A. Gram stain, B. The type of hemolysis, C. Colonial morphology, D. Bile solubility, Characteristically, enterococci are:, A. Unable to grow in 6.5% NaCl, B. Relatively resistant to penicillin, C. Sodium hippurate positive, D. Bile esculin negative, Which of the following would best differentiate Streptococcus agalactiae from Streptococcus pyogenes?, A. Ability to grow in sodium azide broth, B. A positive bile-esculin reaction, C. Hydrolysis of sodium hippurate, D. Beta-hemolysis on sheep blood agar, A yellow colony from a wound culture tested catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. The organism stained as gram-positive cocci in clusters. Which of the following tests would differentiate between a coagulase-negative Staphylococcus and Micrococcus?, A. Novobiocin susceptibility, B. Leucine aminopeptidase (LAP) production, C. Furazolidone (100 μg/disk) susceptibility, D. Hydrolysis of bile esculin, A light-yellow colony from a skin lesion grows aerobically and tests as catalase-positive and coagulase-negative. The organism stains as gram-positive cocci in clusters. The organism is modified oxidase-positive, bacitracin (0.04U) susceptible and resistant to lysostaphin. What is the identification?, A. Staphylococcus aureus, B. Micrococcus luteus, C. Staphylococcus epidermidis, D. Peptostreptococcus anaerobius, An isolate of an unknown beta-hemolytic Streptococcus is streaked perpendicular to a streak of beta-lysin-producing Staphylococcus aureus. After incubation a zone of arrowhead hemolysis is noted at the interface. What is the name of the test and the presumptive identification?, A. Hippurate hydrolysis and S. agalactiae, B. CAMP test and S. pyogenes, C. Hippurate hydrolysis and S. pyogenes, D. CAMP test and S. agalactiae, Which of the following may be used as a positive quality control organism for the bile esculin test?, A. Staphylococcus epidermidis, B. Staphylococcus aureus, C. Streptococcus pyogenes, D. Enterococcus faecalis, Interpret the Gram stain and test shown in the images. This organism is:, A. Streptococcus pyogenes, B. Streptococcus pneumoniae, C. Enterococcus faecalis, D. Viridans group Streptococcus, A gray, nonhemolytic, catalase-negative colony grows on a CNA plate. 6.5% NaCl: negative; bile esculin: positive; PYR: negative; bacitracin: resistant; hippurate hydrolysis: negative; CAMP test: negative. The most likely identification is:, A. Enterococcus faecalis, B. Streptococcus bovis, C. Viridans streptococci, D. Streptococcus pneumoniae, The ONPG test allows organisms to be classified as a lactose fermenter by testing for which of the following?, A. Permease, B. Beta-galactosidase, C. Beta-lactamase, D. Phosphatase, The most rapid method for detection of Francisella tularensis is:, A. Serological slide agglutination utilizing specific antiserum, B. Dye-stained clinical specimens, C. Fluorescent antibody staining techniques on clinical specimens, D. Polymerase chain reaction, Members of the family Enterobacterales share which one of the following characteristics?, A. Produce cytochrome oxidase, B. Ferment lactose, C. Produce beta-hemolysis, D. Reduce nitrate to nitrite, Which one of these genera is among the least biochemically reactive members of the Enterobacterales?, A. Proteus, B. Pseudomonas, C. Citrobacter, D. Shigella, Which one of these gram-negative bacilli ferments glucose?, A. Alcaligenes faecalis, B. Burkholderia cepacia, C. Acinetobacter lwoffii, D. Yersinia enterocolitica, An organism is inoculated to a TSI tube and gives the reactions: alkaline slant/acid butt, H₂S, gas produced. This organism most likely is:, A. Klebsiella pneumoniae, B. Shigella dysenteriae, C. Salmonella typhimurium, D. Escherichia coli, A TSI tube is inoculated with an organism and gives the reactions: alkaline slant, acid butt, no H₂S, no gas produced. This organism is most likely:, A. Yersinia enterocolitica, B. Salmonella typhi, C. Salmonella enteritidis, D. Shigella dysenteriae, An organism gave the reactions: TSI: acid slant, acid butt, no H₂S gas produced; indole: positive; motility: positive; citrate: negative; lysine decarboxylase: positive; urea: negative; VP: negative. This organism most likely is:, A. Klebsiella pneumoniae, B. Shigella dysenteriae, C. Escherichia coli, D. Enterobacter cloacae, Plesiomonas shigelloides is a member of the family Enterobacterales. The characteristic that differentiates Plesiomonas from other Enterobacterales is:, A. Positive oxidase, B. Glucose fermentation, C. Reduction of nitrates to nitrites, D. Growth on MacConkey agar, The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of motility are:, A. Salmonella typhimurium—Escherichia coli, B. Escherichia coli—Pseudomonas aeruginosa, C. Serratia marcescens—Escherichia coli, D. Klebsiella pneumoniae—Escherichia coli, The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of oxidase production are:, A. Escherichia coli—Klebsiella pneumoniae, B. Salmonella typhimurium—Escherichia coli, C. Escherichia coli—Pseudomonas aeruginosa, D. Proteus mirabilis—Escherichia coli, The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of deamination activity are:, A. Escherichia coli—Klebsiella pneumoniae, B. Salmonella typhimurium—Escherichia coli, C. Escherichia coli—Pseudomonas aeruginosa, D. Proteus mirabilis—Escherichia coli, The stock cultures needed for quality control testing of deoxyribonuclease (DNase) production are:, A. Salmonella typhimurium—Escherichia coli, B. Escherichia coli—Pseudomonas aeruginosa, C. Proteus mirabilis—Escherichia coli, D. Serratia marcescens—Escherichia coli, Quality control of the spot indole test requires the use of ATCC cultures of:, A. Pseudomonas aeruginosa—Proteus mirabilis, B. Salmonella typhi—Shigella sonnei, C. Escherichia coli—Proteus vulgaris, D. Escherichia coli—Enterobacter cloacae, An organism that exhibits the satellite phenomenon around colonies of Staphylococcus aureus is:, A. Haemophilus influenzae, B. Neisseria meningitidis, C. Neisseria gonorrhoeae, D. Klebsiella pneumoniae, Acinetobacter lwoffii differs from Neisseria gonorrhoeae in that Acinetobacter:, A. Exhibits a gram-negative staining reaction, B. Will grow on MacConkey and EMB media, C. Is oxidase-positive, D. Produces hydrogen sulfide on a TSI slant, A characteristic that is helpful in separating Pseudomonas aeruginosa from other members of the Pseudomonas family is:, A. A positive test for cytochrome oxidase, B. Oxidative metabolism in the OF test, C. Production of fluorescein pigment, D. Growth at 42°C, The porphyrin test is devised to detect strains of Haemophilus capable of:, A. Ampicillin degradation, B. Capsule production, C. Hemin synthesis, D. Chloramphenicol resistance, A genus that is found in soil and water and causes infections in immunocompromised patients has the characteristics: sheep blood agar: violet pigment; MacConkey agar: growth; 42°C incubation: growth; oxidase: positive; OF glucose: fermenter; indole: negative. The genus is:, A. Campylobacter, B. Chromobacterium, C. Aeromonas, D. Serratia, Which characteristic best differentiates Acinetobacter species from Moraxella species?, A. Production of oxidase, B. Growth on MacConkey agar, C. Motility, D. Susceptibility to penicillin, An organism has been identified as a member of the fluorescent group of Pseudomonas. Which of the following sets of tests should be used to determine the species?, A. Growth at 42°C, pyocyanin production, gelatinase production, B. Pyocyanin production, gelatinase production, OF glucose, C. Growth at 37°C, pyocyanin production, OF glucose, D. Gelatinase production, growth at 52°C, H₂S, Characteristics of the genus Capnocytophaga include:, A. Grows in ambient air, B. Colonies are large and spreading after 2-4 days, C. Considered "nonfermenter", D. Gram-positive bacilli, Differentiating tests that will separate Burkholderia from Stenotrophomonas include:, A. Gram stain reaction, B. Growth on MacConkey agar, C. Glucose fermentation, D. Oxidase, Characteristics of the HACEK group of bacteria include:, A. Association with urinary tract infections, B. Gram stain of pleomorphic gram-positive bacilli, C. Requirement of 5%-10% CO₂ for growth, D. Requirement of 42°C for growth, What are the most appropriate screening tests to presumptively differentiate and identify the nonfermentative gram-negative bacilli from the Enterobacterales?, A. Catalase, decarboxylation of arginine, growth on blood agar, B. Motility, urease, morphology on blood agar, C. Oxidase, nitrate reduction, growth on MacConkey agar, D. Oxidase, indole, and growth on blood agar, Which genera are positive for phenylalanine deaminase (PAD) production?, A. Klebsiella, Serratia, Enterobacter, B. Proteus, Providencia, Morganella, C. Escherichia, Edwardsiella, Salmonella, D. Citrobacter, Klebsiella, Pantoea.

Micro Exit 2

by
Print
Embed

Leaderboard

Visual style

Options

Switch template

Continue editing: ?