1) Biochemical secretions that trap and kill microorganisms include a) Hormones b) Neurotransmitters c) Earwax d) Gastric acid 2) The main purpose of the inflammatory response a) To lyse cell membranes of microorganisms b) To prevent infection of the injured tissue c) To create immunity against subsequent tissue injury d) To support vascular systems 3) A child fell off a swing and scraped his right knee. The injured area becomes painful. What else will the nurse observe upon assessment? a) Vasoconstriction at injured site b) Decreased RBC concentration at injured site c) Pale skin at injured site d) Edema at injured site 4) Which of the following individuals would be at greatest risk for an opportunistic infection? a) 18-year-old with asthma and allergies to penicillin b) 70-year-old with pitting edema and congestive heart failure c) 24-year-old who had a splenectomy after a motorcycle crash d) 30-year-old who is pregnant with twins 5) The directional migration of leukocytes along a chemical gradient is termed a) Chemotaxis b) Endocytosis c) Margination d) Diapedesis 6) A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand? a) Eosinophils b) Neutrophils c) Leukotrienes d) Monocytes 7) The predominant phagocyte concerned with parasite infection a) Eosinophil b) Neutrophil c) Lymphocyte d) Macrophage 8) A 25-year-old female experiences a headache and takes aspirin for relief. A nurse recalls aspirin relieves the headache by a) decreasing leukotriene production b) increasing histamine release c) decreasing prostaglandin production d) increasing platelet-activating factor 9) A 25-year-old male is in a car accident and sustains a fracture to his left femur with extensive soft tissue injury. The pain associated with the injury is related to a) histamine b) prostaglandins c) vasoconstriction d) immune complex formation 10) The complement, clotting and kinin systems share which of the following characteristics? a) Activation of a series of proenzymes b) Phagocytosis initiation c) Granulocyte production d) Activated by interferon 11) Bradykinin is involved in a) increasing vascular permeability b) vasoconstriction of blood vessels c) stimulating the clotting system d) increasing degradation of prostaglandins 12) A 35-year-old male is diagnosed with lobar pneumonia. Which of the following exudates would be present in highest concentration at the site of this advanced inflammatory response? a) Serous b) Purulent c) Hemorrhagic d) Fibrinous 13) A 30-year-old male was involved in a motor vehicle crash. The glass from the shattered window cut his face and neck. The scar, however, was raised and extended beyond the original boundaries of the wound. This pattern of scarring is caused by impaired a) nutritional status b) collagen synthesis c) epithelialization d) contraction 14) The post-surgical patient is experiencing delayed wound healing. The dietitian believes the delay is related to nutritional intake. A deficiency in which of the following substances could directly affect healing? a) Vitamin D b) Ascorbic acid c) Melanin d) Cholesterol 15) Which patient will develop active immunity? A patient who a) has natural exposure to an antigen or receives an immunization b) receives preformed antibodies or T cells from a donor c) has T cells that become B cells d) receives immunoglobulin 16) A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He experiences a severe allergic reaction and has to go to the ER. The nurse providing care realizes this reaction is the result of: a) toxoids b) IgA c) IgE d) IgM 17) When a patient asks about secondary lymph organs, how should the nurse respond? Secondary lymph organs include a) the spleen, liver, tonsils, adenoids b) the spleen and liver c) peyer patches, adenoids & appendix d) bone marrow 18) A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks after an initial exposure 48 hours ago. This condition is an example of: a) anaphylaxis. b) delayed hypersensitivity. c) serum sickness. d) viral disease. 19) When a nurse notices that a patient has type O blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient’s body. a) A only b) B only c) O d) A and B 20) Which cytokines participate in hematopoiesis? a) Stimulating factors (CSFs) b) Eosinophils c) Basophils d) Neutrophils 21) What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency? a) Anemia b) Recurrent infections c) Hypersensitivity d) Autoantibody production 22) Erythropoietin is produced in the: a) liver b) bone marrow c) kidneys d) spleen 23) The greatest proportion of total body iron is located in the: a) erythrocytes b) spleen pulp c) bone marrow d) liver tissue 24) Which of the following nutritional components will the nurse encourage a patient to consume as it is needed for erythropoiesis? a) Vitamin B12 b) Ascorbic Acid c) Vitamin D d) Ferritin 25) A nurse is caring for a patient who cannot clot. Which end product of the clotting cascade is this patient unable to make? a) Collagen b) Ferritin c) Thrombin d) Fibrin 26) When a nurse is reviewing lab results and notices that the erythrocytes contain an abnormally low concentration of hemoglobin, the nurse calls these erythrocytes: a) hyperchromic b) hypochromic c) macrocytic d) microcytic 27) A 60-year-old patient diagnosed with emphysema experiences a rapid and pounding heart, dizziness and fatigue with exertion. Which respiratory assessment findings indicate the respiratory system is compensating for the increased oxygen demand? a) Activation of hematopoiesis through cytokine stimulation b) Increased rate and depth of breathing c) Tachycardia d) Activation of the renin-angiotensin response 28) A 21-year-old female was recently diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. In addition to fatigue and weakness, which of the following clinical signs and symptoms would she most likely exhibit? a) Enlarged cervical lymph nodes b) Spoon-shaped nails c) Gait problems d) Petechiae 29) A 35-year-old female is diagnosed with pernicious anemia. The most likely cause is a decrease in:29. a) ferritin b) gastric enzymes c) intrinsic factor d) erythropoietin 30) A patient is prescribed ferrous sulfate and complains of nausea and reports constipated black stools after taking the medication for 48 hours. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate? a) Hold the medication and prepare to give epinephrine. The patient is having an allergic reaction. b) Contact the prescriber to reduce the dosage. c) Contact the prescriber to add an H2 blocker such as Ranitidine to the medication regime. d) Switch the medication to a liquid form and mix with orange juice. 31) Which statement about allergic reactions to penicillin does the nurse identify as true? a) Anaphylactic reactions occur more frequently with penicillins than with any other drug. b) Allergy to penicillin always increases over time. c) Benadryl is the drug of choice for anaphylaxis due to penicillin allergy. d) Patients allergic to penicillin are also allergic to vancomycin 32) Your patient has a temperature of 36 C, respiratory rate of 24, heart rate of 116. They are fatigued, pale in appearance and their clothing is damp. They have no history of fever. You are immediately concerned about SIRS. You note on their chart, there is a history of a severe anaphylactic reaction to Penicillin. You have a stat order to administer Ampicillin. What should you do? a) Administer the Ampicillin as ordered as soon as possible. There is no cross sensitivity with Ampicillin and Penicillin. b) Notify the prescriber to alert the allergy and hold the dose. c) Administer a test dose of cephalosporin to determine reactivity. d) Have an epinephrine dose available when administering the cephalosporin. 33) A 19-year-old college student reports to his primary care provider that he cannot stay awake in class regardless of how much sleep he gets. Under-stimulation of which area of the brain is likely the site of the problem? a) Corpora quadrigemina b) Reticular activating system c) Cerebellum d) Hypothalamus 34) A patient asks the nurse where nociceptors can be found. How should the nurse respond? One location in which nociceptors can be found is the: a) skin b) spinal cord c) efferent pathways d) hypothalamus 35) A patient scrapes both knees while playing soccer and reports sharp and well-localized pain. Which of the following should the nurse document to most accurately characterize the pain? a) Chronic pain b) Referred pain c) Somatic pain d) Visceral pain 36) Shoulder pain lasting longer than 3 months is considered to be a) Chronic pain b) Referred pain c) Acute pain d) Dysthetic pain 37) Several years after an amputation, the patient continues to feel pain sporadically in the absent hand. What type of pain should the nurse document in the chart? a) Neuropathic pain b) Visceral pain c) Phantom limb pain d) Chronic pain 38) The student nurse knows that administering morphine to their patient who is recovering post-operatively form a laparoscopic cholecystectomy is a good choice because a) From a pharmacologic perspective, mu receptors are the most important, as opioid analgesics act primarily by activating mu receptors. b) From a pharmacologic perspective, alpha receptors are the most important, as opioid analgesics act primarily by activating mu receptors. c) From a pharmacologic perspective, delta receptors are the most important, as opioid analgesics act primarily by activating mu receptors. d) From a pharmacologic perspective, receptors are not important as because opioid analgesics act primarily by stimulating prostaglandin production in the afferent somatic pathways. 39) Medications which work in the CNS like Epinephrine, Norepinephrine and Dopamine are examples of a) Adrenergic Agonists b) Alpha-Adrenergic Antagonists II c) Cephalosporins d) H2 Blockers

Pathophysiology

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