1) Q1. The capacity of urine that a bladder can hold is: Please choose one answer a) A. 400-500ml b) B. 20-30ml c) C. 3Liters d) D. 1000Liters 2) Q2. The position of the bladder is: Please choose one answer a) A. Behind the rectum b) B. Above and behind the pubic bone c) C. In front of the pubic bone d) D. Below the rib cage 3) Q3. How many sphincters allow you to control during urination: Please choose one a) A. 5 Sphincters b) B. 4 Sphincters c) C. 3 Sphincters d) D. 2 Sphincters 4) Q4. How many layers do the bladders has? Please choose one answer a) A. 5 Layers b) B. 4 Layers c) C. 3 Layers d) D. 2 Layer 5) Q5. Which of the layers of the bladder differentiated type of Non muscle invasive carcinoma and Muscle invasive carcinoma in Bladder Cancer? Please choose one answer a) A. Mucosa b) B. Submucosa c) C. Detrusor Muscle d) D. Adventia 6) Q6. What are the risk factors for Bladder Cancer? Please choose one answer a) A. Industialized countries, Smoking, Chemical exposed by Profession and Kidney stone. b) B. Industialized countries, Hepatitis C, Chemical exposed by Profession, Chronic bladder irritation or infection. c) C. Modern countries, Smoking, Chemical exposed by Profession, Bladder stone. d) D. Smoking, Gender, Occupational exposure to carcinogens and Other like Radiotherapy, Chemo, diet and Chronic infection 7) Q7. What are the signs and symptom of Bladder Cancer? Please choose one a) A. 80% painless Hematuria, 20% Irritation while voiding (frequency, urgency or dysuria), Uremia due to obstruction of one or both kidneys, Supra pubis mass and VE: extensive mass b) B. 80% Irritation while voiding (frequency, urgency or dysuria), 20% painless Hematuria, Uremia due to obstruction of one or both kidneys, Supra pubis mass and VE: extensive mass c) C. 80% painless Hematuria, 20% Irritation while voiding (frequency, urgency or dysuria), Uremia due to obstruction of one or both kidneys, Vomiting blood. d) D. 80% vomiting blood, 20% Irritation while voiding (frequency, urgency or dysuria), Uremia due to obstruction of one or both kidneys, Supra pubis mass and VE: extensive mass. 8) Q8. What is the Gold standard investigation methods to diagnose Bladder Cancer in front of a patient with hematuria? Please choose on answer a) A. Colonoscopy b) B. Cystoscopy c) C. Gastric Fibroscopy d) D. Naso-endoscopy 9) Q9. If a patient is having abdominal pain with Urinary Retention because he has been having Gross hematuria, what would you do? Please choose one answer a) A. Tell patient to drink more water b) B. Tell patient to drink beer and coconut juice c) C. Put big size urinary catheter and try to aspirate the blood clots from his bladder d) D. Tell patient to go home and come back for cystoscopy tomorrow 10) Q10. What is the TURBT stand for? Choose one answer a) A. Tumor rectal bladder b) B. Trans Urethral Resection of Bladder Tumor c) C. Trans Urethral Rectal of Bladder Tumor d) D. Trans Ureteral retrograde behind tumor 11) Q11. Please give Descriptions and Functions of the Prostate? Please choose one a) A1. A. It’s a MALE sex gland, Pear-shape, wt7-16gm, Size of a walnut, helps control urine flow, Produces fluid component of semen and produces Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA).a b) B. It’s a FEMALE sex gland, Pear-shape, wt7-16gm, Size of a walnut, helps control urine flow, Produces fluid component of semen and produces Prostate Specific Antigen (PSA). c) C. It’s a MALE sex gland, wt7-16gm, Size of a walnut, creates urine, Produces fluid component of semen and produces Alpha Foeto Protein. d) D. It’s a FEMALE sex gland, wt7-16gm, Size of a pineapple, helps control urine flow, Produces spermatozoid and produces Alpha Foeto Protein. 12) Q12. What are the Obstructive lower urinary tracts symptoms in BPH? Choose one a) A. Hesitancy, Weak stream, Straining to pass urine, Prolonged micturition, Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying and Urinary retention. b) B. Urgency, Frequency, Nocturia, Urge incontinence. c) C. Hematuria, Urgency, Frequency, and genital discharge d) D. Genital discharge, Testicle swelling, and testicle hematoma 13) Q13. What are the methods to diagnose Benign Hyperplasia of Prostate? a) A. Symptom assessment by IPSS, Digital rectal examination (DRE), Ultrasonography, urodynamic analysis, measurement of PSA (prostatespecific antigen) b) B. Symptom assessment by IPSS, vaginal examination, Ultrasonography, urodynamic analysis, measurement of PSA (prostate-specific antigen) c) C. Symptom assessment by AAST, Digital rectal examination (DRE), Ultrasonography, urodynamic analysis, measurement of PSA (prostatespecific antigen) d) D. Symptom assessment by IPSS, Glasgow Coma Score, Ultrasonography, urodynamic analysis, measurement of PSA (prostate-specific antigen) 14) Q14. The normal volume of the Prostate in an adult male is: Please choose one a) A. 25g-30g b) B. 5g-10g c) C. 120g-130g d) D. 50g-60g 15) Q15. What is the normal measurement of PSA? a) A. Below 4ng/ml b) B. More than 10ng/ml c) C. More than 100ng/ml d) D. More than 50ng/ml 16) Q16. What is the most important physical examination when the patient has BPH? a) A. Abdominal Palpation b) B. Abdominal Auscultation c) C. Digital rectal examination d) D. Vaginal examination 17) Q17. What else can be detected during Digital rectal examination beside consistency and shape of prostate? Choose one answer a) A. Consistency of cervix b) B. Fecaloma and rectal tumor c) C. Inflammation of tonsil d) D. Leucorrhea 18) Q18. Which hormone play an important role in the development of Prostate? a) A. Androgen b) B. Cortisol c) C. Serotonin d) D. Prolactin 19) Q19. Where is the prostate located? a) A. On top of the bladder b) B. Behind the rectum c) C. Below the bladder and around the urethra d) D. Below the liver 20) Q20. What are the Irritative lower urinary tracts symptoms in BPH? a) A. Hesitancy, Weak stream, Straining to pass urine, Prolonged micturition, Feeling of incomplete bladder emptying and Urinary retention. b) B. Urgency, Frequency, Nocturia, Urge incontinence. c) C. Hematuria, Urgency, Frequency, and genital discharge d) D. Genital discharge, Testicle swelling, and testicle hematoma 21) Q21. Please describe the classification of the urinary tract infection? a) A. There are 2 types of urinary tract infection: Upper urinary tract infection ( Acute pyelonephritis) and Lower urinary tract infection (Cystitis, Prostatitis and Urethritis) b) B. There are 3 types of urinary tract infection: Upper urinary tract infection ( Acute pyelonephritis) Middle urinary tract infection (Ureteritis) and Lower urinary tract infection (Cystitis, Prostatitis and Urethritis) c) C. There are 4 types of urinary tract infection: Upper urinary tract infection ( Acute pyelonephritis) Middle urinary tract infection (Ureteritis), Lower mdiddle(lower ureteritis) and Lower urinary tract infection (Cystitis, Prostatitis and Urethritis) d) D. There are 4 types of urinary tract infection: Upper urinary tract infection ( Acute pyelonephritis), Upper middle (upper ureteritis), Middle urinary tract infection (Ureteritis), Lower middle(lower ureteritis) and Lower urinary tract infection (Cystitis, Prostatitis and Urethritis) 22) Q22. Which bacteria that caused 80% of acute uncomplicated UTI? a) A. Escherichia Coli b) B. Klebsiella, Proteus c) C. Streptococcus faecalis d) D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus. 23) Q23. What are the routes of bacterial entry to urinary tract? a) A. Ascending infection and Direct extension from other organs b) B. Ascending infection and Blood borne spread c) C. Ascending infection and Lymphatogenous spread d) D. Ascending infection, Blood borne spread, Lymphatogenous spread and Direct extension from other organs 24) Q24. What are the clinical manifestation of Cystitis? a) A. Dysuria, urgency and frequent urination, pelvic discomfort, abdominal pain, pyuria and blood in urine and irritation voiding in hemorrhagic cystitis b) B. Lumbar pain, fever and chill. c) C. Headache and fever. d) D. Genital discharge and fever 25) Q25. What are the clinical manifestations of Pyelonephritis? a) A- Renal colic, Suprapubic tenderness, Fever and chills, White blood cell casts in urine, Back pain, Nausea and vomiting, Complications include sepsis, septic shock and death. b) B- Renal colic, no suprapubic tenderness, No fever, No white blood cell in urine, Back pain, Nausea and vomiting, Complications include sepsis, septic shock and death c) C- Pain on the right lower abdomen, Fever, Nausea and vomiting. d) D- Pain below the right lower ribs, Fever, Nausea and vomiting. 26) Q26. Why women are more likely to have cystitis or UTI than men? Choose one a) A. Women has more chance of having diabetes b) B. Women has shorter urethra c) C. Men has prostate to prevent UTI d) D. Men has shorter urethra 27) Q27. Why Boys are more likely to have UTI than Girls? a) A. Boys has shorter urethra than Girls b) B. Most Boys can’t clean their penis’s glans because some has phimosis or uncircumcised c) C. Boys has small prostate d) D. Boys doesn’t urinate often as Girls 28) Q28. Which route is the most common route of bacterial entry to urinary tract? a) A. Ascending infection b) B. Blood Borne spread c) C. Lymphatogenous spread d) D. Direct extension from others organs 29) Q29. Which Bacteria that cause Honeymoon cystititis specifically for women just got married or just has sex for the first time? Choose one answer a) A. E. Coli b) B. Klebsiella c) C. Streptococcus faecalis d) D. Staphylococcus saprophyticus 30) Q30. Which Bacteria cause Complicated UTI? Choose one answer a) A. Peudomonas aeruginosa, Enterobacter and Serratia b) B. E. Coli, Klebsiella c) C. Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus saprophyticus d) D. Streptococcus faecalis, Staphylococcus saprophyticus and E.Coli. 31) Q31. What investigation should perform to find whether the patient has bacteria in the urine and also find out which anti biotic suitable with that bacteria? Choose one answer a) A. Urine Nitrite dipstick test. b) B. Ultrasound c) C. Urine culture d) D. Urine cytology 32) Q32. What are the sign and symptoms of urinary calculi? Please choose one a) A. Renal colic: rapid onset, unable to achieve comfortable position (writhing), Radiates from flank to groin (Testis/labia), Nausea and vomiting, Hematuria, Irritative LUTS, and beware of fever. b) B. Pain on the right lower abdomen, Fever, Nausea and vomiting. c) C. Pain below the right lower ribs, Fever, Nausea and vomiting. d) D. Suprapubic tenderness, No fever, No white blood cell in urine, Back pain, Nausea and vomiting, Complications include sepsis, septic shock and death. 33) Q33. Where do stones usually get stuck? Choose one answer a) A. UPJ: Ureteropelvic Junction, Pelvic brim and UVJ: Uretero-vesical junction b) B. Kidney, Renal pelvis and bladder c) C. Bladder and Kidney cavity d) D. Only in kidney cavity 34) Q34. What are the 3 main imaging examinations can diagnose urinary calculi? a) A. Ultrasound, KUB and Non-contrast Low-Dose CT abdopelvis (NCCT) b) B. Ultrasound, IVP and MRI c) C. Ultrasound, Retrograde pyelography and MRI d) D. IVP, MRI, CT scan with injection 35) Q35. What are the risk factors for urinary calculi? Choose one answer a) A. High lipid diet, medication contain Mg, obesity and dehydration b) B. High sugar diet, high cholesterol diet and high protein diet c) C. High sugar diet and dehydration d) D. High protein diet, high salt diet, medication contain Ca, obesity and dehydration 36) Q36. What are the stone inhibitors? Choose one answer a) A. Calcium and Sodium b) B. Magnesium and Citrate c) C. Glucose and Triglyceride d) D. Sodium and uric acid 37) Q37. What are the type of Kidney stone? Choose one answer a) A. Magnesium, Citrate, Triglyceride and cystine b) B. Calcium oxalate, Calcium phosphate, Struvite, uric acid, and cystine stone c) C. Calcium oxalate, Calcium phosphate, Magnesium, Citrate and Triglyceride d) D. Calcium oxalate and Calcium phosphate 38) Q38. What are the advantages of IVP? Choose one answer a) A. Find location of obstruction(stone), Function of kidneys, Dilatation urinary tract, and Malformation of urinary tract b) B. Size of prostate, inflammation of kidney and existence of ovarian cysts c) C. Size of prostate, Find location of obstruction(stone), and inflammation kidneys of  d) D. Inflammation of prostate, size of prostate and existence of fecaloma 39) Q39. What are the treatment for urinary calculi? Choose one answer a) A. Extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy b) B. Ureteroscopic laser lithotripsy c) C. Percutaneous nephrolithotomy d) D. All of the above 40) Q40. Where is the Uretero-vesical Junction (UVJ) located? Choose one answer a) A. Where the renal pelvis meets the ureter b) B. Where the ureter meets the bladder c) C. At the level of the common iliac vessels d) D. Where the kidney meets the bladder 41) Q41. Where is the Ureteropelvic Junction (UPJ) located? Choose one answer a) A. Where the renal pelvis meets the ureter b) B. Where the ureter meets the bladder c) C. At the level of the common iliac vessels d) D. Where the kidney meets the bladder 42) Q42. How big is the kidney stone that can pass spontaneously out? Choose one a) A. Smaller than 5mm b) B. Bigger than 5mm c) C. Bigger than 10mm d) D. Bigger than 20mm 43) Q43. What to do urgently if a patient has Obstructing stone and fever(infection)? a) A. Decompression with ureteral double J stent or Nephrostomy b) B. Give antibiotic and drink more water at home c) C. Put urinary catheter and drink more water at home d) D. Give antibiotic and put urinary catheter 44) Q44. What is the definition of Ureteropelvic junction obstruction? a) A. It defined as a partial or complete obstruction of the flow of urine from the renal pelvis to the proximal ureter. It can be congenital or acquired with a congenital PUJ obstruction being one of the commonest causes of antenatal hydronephrosis b) B. It defined as a complete obstruction of the flow of urine from the renal pelvis to the proximal ureter. It can be congenital or acquired with a congenital PUJ obstruction being one of the commonest causes of antenatal hydronephrosis. c) C. It defined as a partial obstruction of the flow of urine from the renal pelvis to the proximal ureter. It can be a congenital PUJ obstruction being one of the commonest causes of antenatal hydronephrosis. d) D. It defined as an obstruction of the flow of lymphatic from the renal pelvis to the proximal ureter. It can be congenital or acquired with a congenital PUJ obstruction being one of the commonest causes of antenatal hydronephrosis. 45) Q45. What are the etiology of the Ureteropelvic junction obstruction? Choose one a) A. Intrinsic obstruction: stenosis due to scarring of ureteral valves, Extrinsic obstruction by ureteral hypoplasia, crossing lower-pole renal vessels, Rotation of the kidney and renal hypermobility, Iatrogenic obstruction caused by prior surgical intervention b) B. Chronic UTI, Appendicitis, and Cholecystitis. c) C. Bladder Cancer, Penile malignancy and kidney cancer. d) D. Kidney stone, ureteral stone and bladder stone. 46) Q46. What is the clinical presentation in Neonates for Ureteropelvic junction obstruction? Choose one a) A. Hydronephrosis. b) B. Abdominal pain and vomiting c) C. Hematuria d) D. Genital discharge 47) Q47. What is the first main imaging investigation for UPJ Obstruction? a) A. MRI b) B. PET SCAN c) C. Ultrasound d) D. KUB 48) Q48. What is the Definition of testicle torsion? Choose one answer a) A. It’s twisting of the vas deferent leading to decreased blood flow to the testicle resulting in ischemia, infarction and tissue necrosis. b) B. It’s twisting of the spermatic cord leading to decreased blood flow to the testicle resulting in ischemia, infarction and tissue necrosis. c) C. It’s twisting of the femoral artery leading to decreased blood flow to the testicle resulting in ischemia, infarction and tissue necrosis. d) D. It’s twisting of jugular vein leading to decreased blood flow to the testicle  49) Q49. How many type of testicle torsion? Choose one answer a) A. Extravaginal testicular torsion and Intravaginal testicular torsion b) B. Extravaginal testicular torsion and Supravaginal testicular torsion c) C. Intravaginal testicular torsion and Supravaginal testicular torsion d) D. Extravaginal testicular torsion, Intravaginal testicular torsion and Supravaginal testicular torsion 50) Q50. What are the signs of testicular torsion? Choose one answer a) A. Sudden strong pain in a testicle, Swelling and redness, feeling sick or throwing up, Testicle that hurts may be higher than the other, Pain may go away but come back again b) B. Headache, vomiting blood, and sore throat c) C. Lumbar pain and fever d) D. Blindness, headache and fever 51) Q51. How long normally the torsion testicule is too late to save? a) A. More than 1 hours from the pain started. b) B. More than 2 hours from the pain started c) C. More than 3 hours from the pain started d) D. More than 6 hours from the pain started 52) Q52. What is the main imaging examination for testicle torsion? a) A. Ultrasound and Doppler finding. b) B. CT SCAN c) C. MRI d) D. Cystoscopy 53) Q53. What are the main risk factor for testicle torsion? Choose one answer a) A. Hydrocele b) B. Bell clapper deformity c) C. Undescended testicle d) D. B and C 54) Q54. What is the name of the reflex use to identify testicle torsion? Choose one a) A. Bicep reflex b) B. Tricep reflex c) C. Cremasteric reflex d) D. Patellar reflex 55) Q55. If the testicle torsion happened more than 6 hours and testicle become necrosis, what should we do? Choose one answer a) A. Orchidopexy b) B. Orchiectomy c) C. Surveillance at home d) D. Give Antibiotics 56) Q56. What is the meaning of ORCHIECTOMY? Choose one answer a) A. Removal of the testicle b) B. Suture the testicle to the scrotum c) C. Open up the testicle d) D. Drainage the testicle 57) Q57. What is the meaning of ORCHIDOPEXY? Choose one answer a) A. Removal of the testicle b) B. Suture the testicle to the scrotum c) C. Open up the testicle d) D. Drainage the testicle 58) Q58. What are the symptoms of simple kidney cysts? Choose one answer a) A. Typically, don’t cause signs or symptoms. Large cysts : Dull pain in your back or side, fever, upper abdominal pain b) B. Always Hematuria and fever c) C. Headache, fever and chill d) D. Urgency, dysuria and urge incontinence 59) Q59. How to diagnose Kidney cysts? Choose one answer a) A. Ultrasound, CT, MRI b) B. KUB c) C. IVP d) D. Retrograde Urethro-cystography 60) Q60. What are the 2 type of kidney cysts? Choose one answer a) A. Simple kidney cysts and Polycystic kidney disease b) B. Simple kidney cysts and Not simple kidney cysts c) C. Simple kidney cysts and Very simple kidney cysts d) D. Multiple kidney cysts and Polycystic kidney cysts 61) Q61. Simple kidney cysts are: Choose one answer a) A. Cancerous cysts that rarely cause complication b) B. Cancerous cysts that often cause complication c) C. Noncancerous cysts that often cause complication d) D. Noncancerous cysts that rarely cause complication 62) Q62. What is the name of the Classification of kidney cysts created by Dr. Morton.B? Choose one answer a) A. Garden classification b) B. Bosniak classification c) C. Newton classification d) D. Sovandara classification. 63) Q63. What are the complication of kidney cysts? a) A. Infected cyst, Burst cyst and Urine obstruction b) B. Hematuria, fever and Penile discharge c) C. Appendicitis, Biliary Peritonitis d) D. Urinary retention 64) Q64. Treatment for small kidney cyst with no signs or symptoms: Choose one a) A. No treatment needed. b) B. Puncturing and draining. c) C. Surgery to remove the cyst d) D. Medical treatment to shrink the cyst 65) Q65. Treatment for big cysts that cause sign and symptoms: Choose one answer a) A. No treatment needed b) B. Puncturing and draining the cyst and Surgery to remove the cyst c) C. Medical treatment to shrink the cyst d) D. Radiotherapy 66) What is the meaning of Partial Penectomy? a) A. Removal of part of the penis. b) B. Removal of part the Prostate. c) C. Removal of part of the uterus. d) D. Removal all of the part of penis 67) What is the aim of the treatment in penile cancer? Choose one answer a) A. Complete removal of the tumor in the testicle.  b) B. Complete removal of the fore skin c) C. Partial removal of the tumor d) D. Complete removal of the tumor with organ preservation as much as possible 68) The Jackson’s staging of penile cancer has how many stages? Choose one answer a) A. 3 Stages b) B. 4 Stages c) C. 5 Stages d) D. 6 Stages 69) What are the symptoms of penile malignancy? a) A. Burn feeling, itchy, induration of the penis, mostly hidden by phimosis. A painless lesion on the glans penis/inner aspect of prepuce skin. Papillary vs ulcerative, Penile discharge, Dysuria and 50% palpable inguinal lymph nodes. b) B. Sore throat, Testicle swelling, Urgency and Hematuria. c) C. Axillary lymph nodes, testicle swelling, Urgency and Hematuria. d) D. Axillary lymph nodes, testicle swelling, Urgency and Nocturia 70) What are the most common risk factors of the penil malignancy? Choose one answe a) A. Hygiene and phimosis: uncircumcision, chronic balanoposthitis, phimosis and STD. b) B. Dermatology lesion: leukoplakia of glans, long-standing genital warts and Paget’s disease of the penis c) C. Virus: Condyloma acuminate(HPV), balanitis xerotica obliterans, HIV, age>50yrs, smoking cigarette and chewing tobacco and penile intraepithelial neoplasia. 71) What are the parts of the penis? Choose one answer a) A. Root of the penis (radix), and the glans b) B. Root of the penis (radix), Body of the penis (corpus) and the glans c) C. Root of the penis (radix), and Body of the penis (corpus) d) D. Body of the penis (corpus) and the glans 72) What does Cryptorchidism mean? Choose one answer a) A. Born with both testicles but one or both testicles fail to reach scrotum before birth.  b) B. Born without one testicle c) C. Born without both testicles d) D. Born with three testicles. 73) Which side of the testis is slightly lower than the other one? Choose one answer a) A. Left testis b) B. Right testis 74) Which is the major risk factor for testicle cancer? Choose one answer a) A. Klinefelter syndrome b) B. Mumps orchitis c) C. Cryptorchidism d) D. Inguinal hernias 75) Which is the last layer cover the testis? Choose one answer a) A. Tunica Vaginalis b) B. Skin c) C. Cremastric Muscle d) D. Dartos 76) How to diagnose testicle cancer? Choose one answer a) A. Breast Self-Examination, Ultrasound, CXR+/- Chest CT, Abdominal CT, Markers: Beta-HCG and Alpha-Fetoprotein. b) B. Physical Examination, Ultrasound, CXR+/- Chest CT, Abdominal CT, Markers: Beta-HCG and Alpha-Fetoprotein. c) C. Digital prostate examination and ultrasound d) D. Vaginal examination and ultrasound 77) What are the tumor marker of the testicle cancer? Choose one a) A. Alpha- Foetoprotein b) B. Lactic Acid Dehydrogenase c) C. Human Chorionic Gonadotophin d) D. All of the above 78) What are the symptoms of Testicle cancer? Choose one answe a) A. A lump in the rectum, blood in stool and fever. b) B. A lump under the rib cage, pyuria and dysuria c) C. A lump in inguinal region, fever and hematuria. d) D. A lump in one testis may or may not painful, sharp pain or a dull ache in lower abdomen or scrotum, heaviness in the scrotum, breast enlargement (gynecomastia) from hormonal effect of beta-HCG, low back pain (lumbago) due to the cancer spreading to the lymph nodes along the back. 79) What are the cause and risk factors of testicle cancer? Choose one answer a) A. Cryptorchidism, Inguinal hernias, Klinefelter syndrome, Mumps orchitis, Sedentary lifestyle,  Canabis b) D. Kidney transplant, bladder cancer and hydrocele. c) B. Hydrocele, Inguinal hernias, Luxurious lifestyle and Canabis. d) C. Kidney malformation, Kidney stone and kidney cysts. 80) What are the main risk factor for testicle torsion? Choose one answe a) A. Hydrocele b) B. Bell clapper deformity c) C. Undescended testicle d) D. B and C

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